[qdeck]

[q]

SPINAL CORD – location[a] vertebral canal

[q]

Cervical Enlargement – define[a]the thickened part of cord where nerves for upper extremities attach

[q]

Lumbar Enlargement – define[a] the thickened part of cord where nerves for lower extremities attach

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Conus Medullaris – define[a] the inferior border of cord proper around L2

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Spinal Segments – define[a] the sections of the cord that give rise to a pair of spinal nerves

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Dermatome – define[a] an area of skin innervated by a specific segment

[q]

Myotome – define[a] an area of muscles innervated by a specific segment

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Scleratome – define[a] an area of connective tissue innervated by a specific segment

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MENINGES – define[a] the PROTECTIVE COVERINGS OF CORD

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Pia Mater – define[a] the innermost layer of meninges that adheres directly to cord

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Filum Terminale – define[a] the string like continuation of Pia mater that anchors cord to sacrum

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Arachnoid Mater – define[a] the middle layer of meninges

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Sub Arachnoid Space – define[a] the space between Arachnoid mater and Pia mater filled with Cerebrospinal fluid for extra cushioning and protection

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Dura Mater – define[a] the outer most layer of meninges which travels down to sacrum

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Subdural space – define[a] the space between Dura mater and Arachnoid mater

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Epidural space – define[a] the space outside Dura mater between it, the vertebrae and skull

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Central Canal – define[a] the hole in the center of cord lined with ependymal cells and filled with Cerebrospinal fluid.

[q]

Posterior Grey Horn – function[a] the area where 1st order neurons synapse with second order sensory neurons

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Anterior Grey Horn – function[a] the area where CNS motor neurons synapse with soma of lower motor neurons

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Lateral Grey Horn – structure[a] the area composed of somas of autonomic preganglionic neurons

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Dorsal Root Ganglion – define[a] the bump on dorsal root that contains cell bodies of unipolar sensory neurons

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Columns/Funiculi – define[a] the Posterior, Anterior, and Lateral areas of white matter in the cord

[q]

Tracts/Fasiculi – define[a] smaller bundles of white matter within the columns of the cord which carry impulses up and down cord

[/qdeck]

[qdeck]

[q]

Which part of the CNS is located in the vertebral canal?[a]SPINAL CORD

[q]

Which term describes the thickened part of cord where nerves for upper extremities attach?[a]Cervical Enlargement

[q]

Which term describes the thickened part of cord where nerves for lower extremities attach?[a]Lumbar Enlargement

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Which term describes the inferior border of cord proper around L2?[a]Conus Medullaris

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Which term describes the sections of the cord that give rise to a pair of spinal nerves?[a]Spinal Segments

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Which term describes an area of skin innervated by a specific segment?[a]Dermatome

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Which term describes an area of muscles innervated by a specific segment?[a]Myotome

[q]

Which term describes an area of connective tissue innervated by a specific segment?[a]Scleratome

[q]

Which term describes the PROTECTIVE COVERINGS OF CORD?[a]MENINGES

[q]

Which term describes the innermost layer of meninges that adheres directly to cord?[a]Pia Mater

[q]

Which term describes the string like continuation of Pia mater that anchors cord to sacrum?[a]Filum Terminale

[q]

Which term describes the middle layer of meninges?[a]Arachnoid Membrane

[q]

Which term describes the space between Arachnoid mater and Pia mater filled with Cerebrospinal fluid for extra cushioning and protection?[a]Sub Arachnoid Space

[q]

Which term describes the outer most layer of meninges?[a]Dura Mater

[q]

Which term describes the space between Dura mater and Arachnoid mater?[a]Subdural space

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Which term describes the space between the Dura mater and the bone surrounding it?[a]Epidural space

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Which term describes the hole in the center of cord lined with ependymal cells and filled with Cerebrospinal fluid?[a]Central Canal

[q]

In which area od a spinal segment do 1st order neurons synapse with second order sensory neurons?[a]Posterior Grey Horn

[q]

In which area od a spinal segment do CNS motor neurons synapse with soma of lower motor neurons?[a]Anterior Grey Horn

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In which area of a spinal segment do you find autonomic preganglionic neurons?[a]Lateral Grey Horn

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Which term describes the bump on dorsal root that contains cell bodies of unipolar sensory neurons?[a]Dorsal Root Ganglion

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Which term describes the Posterior, Anterior, and Lateral areas of white matter in the cord?[a]Columns/Funiculi

[q]

Which term describes smaller bundles of white matter within the columns of the cord which carry impulses up and down cord?[a]Tracts/Fasiculi

[/qdeck]

[qdeck]

[q]

Long tracts – function[a]These tracts connect brain to cord or cord to brain

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Short tracts/propriospinal tracts – function[a]These tracts connect different segments of the cord to coordinate movements and reflexes

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Ascending tracts – function[a]These tracts are sensory tracts and carry info up to the brain

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Descending tracts – function[a]These tracts are motor tracts that carry info down from the brain

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Dorsal Root – structure[a]This root contains the PNS sensory neurons that end up in Posterior gray horn of spinal cord

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Ventral Root – structure[a]Thise root contains motor neurons that begin in the Anterior and Lateral gray horns

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Spinal Nerve – structure[a]These mixed nerves are formed where roots merge and exit the vertebral column through intervertebral foramina

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Rami – define[a]This term describes the branches of the spinal nerves located outside the vertebral column

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Posterior Ramus – structure[a]This branch of spinal nerve contains neurons that innervate the skin and muscles in a small strip just lateral to vertebral column

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Anterior Ramus – structure[a]This branch of the spinal nerve contains the neurons that innervate the trunk and limbs except for the paraspinal muscles

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Rami Communicans – structure[a]This branches of the spinal nerve attach the sympathetic chain ganglia to the spinal nerves

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White rami communicans – structure[a] These branches of the Anterior Ramus contain sympathetic preganglionic neurons

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Grey rami communicans – structure[a]This branch of the spinal nerve contains sympathetic postganglionic neurons

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1st order neuron – pathway[a]These neurons travels from the receptor into the Posterior Gray Horn and synapses with 2nd order neuron

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2nd order neuron – pathway[a]These neurons originate in the Posterior Gray Horn and travel in a tract up to the thalamus.

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3rd order neuron – pathway[a]This neuron goes from the thalamus to the cerebral cortex Has precise localization of sensation and conscious awareness.

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What kind of information travels along the Spinothalamic tracts?[a] touch

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What kind of information travels along the Posterior/Anterior Spinocerebellar Pathways?[a] proprioception

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Upper motor neuron – pathway[a]This neuron begins in the brain, travels down a tract, ends in the Anterior Gray Horn and synapses with the lower motor neuron.

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Lower motor neuron – pathway[a]This neuron begins in the Anterior Gray Horn, travels out through the ventral root into the spinal nerve and on to the effector

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What kind of information travels along the Pyramidal/Corticospinal Tracts?[a] Signals from cerebral cortex to Anterior Gray Horn for voluntary control of skeletal muscle

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What kind of information travels along the Extrapyramidal tract?[a]Commands for involuntary control of skeletal muscle

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What causes flaccid paralysis?[a] lower motor neuron damage

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What causes spastic paralysis?[a] upper motor neuron damage

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AUTONOMIC MOTOR SYSTEM- PATHWAY[a] Preganglionic neurons go from lateral gray horn/cranial nerve nuclei to an autonomic ganglion. Then Postganlionic neurons go from ANS ganglion to the effector organ.

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INTERNUNCIAL POOL – define[a]A group of nearby neurons in the spinal cord which can all be facilitated by a strong enough stimulus.

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Which spinal nerves form the CERVICAL Plexus?[a]spinal nerves C1 to C4/C5

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Which spinal nerves form the BRACHIAL Plexus?[a] C5 to T1

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Which spinal nerves form the LUMBAR Plexus?[a] L1 to L4

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Which spinal nerves form the SACRAL Plexus?[a] L4 or L5 to S3

[/qdeck]

[qdeck]

[q]

Which type of tracts connect brain to cord or cord to brain?[a]Long tracts

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Which type of tracts connect different segments of the cord to coordinate movements and reflexes?[a]Short tracts/propriospinal tracts

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Which type of tracts are sensory tracts and carry info up to the brain?[a]Ascending tracts

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Which type of tracts are motor tracts that carry info down from the brain?[a]Descending tracts

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Which type of root contains the PNS sensory neurons that end up in Posterior gray horn of spinal cord?[a]Dorsal Root

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Which type of root contains motor neurons that begin in the Anterior and Lateral gray horns?[a]Ventral Root

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Which type of mixed nerve is formed where roots merge and exits vertebral column through intervertebral foramina?[a]Spinal Nerve

[q]

Which term describes the branches of the spinal nerves located outside the vertebral column?[a]Rami

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Which branch of spinal nerve contains neurons that innervate the skin and muscles in a small strip just lateral to vertebral column?[a]Posterior Ramus

[q]

Which branch of the spinal nerve contains the neurons that innervate the trunk and limbs except for the paraspinal muscles?[a]Anterior Ramus

[q]

Which branches of the spinal nerve attach the sympathetic chain ganglia to the spinal nerves?[a]Rami Communicans

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Which branches of the Anterior Ramus contain sympathetic preganglionic neurons?[a]White rami communicans

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Which branch of the spinal nerve contains sympathetic postganglionic neurons?[a]Grey rami communicans

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Which type of neuron originates in the Posterior Gray Horn and travels in a tract up to the thalamus?[a]2nd order neuron

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Which type of neuron goes from the thalamus to the cerebral cortex?[a] 3rd order neuron

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Which tracts transmits touch?[a]What kind of information travels along the Spinothalamic tracts?

[q]

Which tracty transmits proprioceptive info to the cerebellum for coordination of movement?[a]Spinocerebellar tract

[q]

Which type of neuron begins in the brain, travels down a tract, ends in the Anterior Gray Horn and synapses with the lower motor neuron?[a]Upper motor neuron

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Which type of neuron begins in the Anterior Gray Horn, travels out through the ventral root into the spinal nerve and on to the effector?[a]Lower motor neuron

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Which tracts carry signals from cerebral cortex to Anterior Gray Horn for voluntary control of skeletal muscle?[a] Pyramidal/Corticospinal Tracts

[q]

Which tract is composed of axons of neurons which travel down to the Anterior Gray Horn for involuntary control of skeletal muscle?[a] Extrapyramidal tract

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Which type of condition occurs due to lower motor neuron damage?[a] flaccid paralysis?

[q]

Which type of condition occurs due to upper motor neuron damage?[a] spastic paralysis?

[q]

In which pathway do preganglionic neurons go from lateral gray horn/cranial nerve nuclei to an autonomic ganglion and postganlionic neurons go from autonomic ganglion to the effector organ?[a]AUTONOMIC MOTOR

[q]

Which structure is formed by a group of nearby neurons in the spinal cord which can be activated by a strong stimulus?[a]INTERNUNCIAL POOL

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Which plexus is formed by spinal nerves C1 to C4/C5?[a]the CERVICAL Plexus?

[q]

Which plexus is formed by spinal nerves C5 to T1?[a] the BRACHIAL Plexus?

[q]

Which plexus is formed by spinal nerves L1 to L4?[a] the LUMBAR Plexus?

[q]

Which plexus is formed by spinal nerves L4 or L5 to S3?[a]the SACRAL Plexus?

[q]

Which type of neuron travels from the receptor into the Posterior Gray Horn and synapses with 2nd order neuron?[a]1st order neuron

[/qdeck]

[qdeck]

[q]

HOMEOSTASIS – define[a]The state of the body’s dynamic equilibrium in its internal environment.

[q]

Internal Environment – define[a]The fluid that bathes the cells of the body compose.

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Negative Feedback Mechanism – define[a] The type of response that cancels stimulus.

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Positive Feedback Mechanism – define[a] The type of response that enhances stimulus.

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Central Nervous System – parts[a]the brain and spinal cord.

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Peripheral Nervous System – parts[a]31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves.

[q]

General Senses – list[a] touch, temperature, pressure, pain, stretch, chemical, & proprioceptors.

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Special Senses – list[a]vision (sight), audition (sound), olfaction (smell), gustation (taste), and equilibrium (balance).

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Motor Neuron – function[a] These neurons innervate effectors.

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Somatic Motor Neuron – function[a] These neurons innervate skeletal muscle cells.

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Autonomic Motor Neuron – function[a]These neurons innervate cardiac, smooth muscle and glands.

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Sympathetic/Thoracolumbar Division – function[a]These autonomic neurons emerge from the thoracic or lumbar segments of the spinal cord and function in “Fight or Flight” response.

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Parasympathetic/Craniosacral Division – function[a] These neurons emerge from the brain/cranium and sacral part of the spinal cord and function in Rest and Digest response.

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RECEPTOR – function[a] detects change in the environment and convertand converts it to a stimulus.

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EFFECTOR – function[a] This structure/organ performs tasks.

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INNERVATE – define[a]activate.

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NEURON aka[a] NERVE FIBER/CELL.

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NERVE – structure[a] This structure in the PNS is made of the bundles of axons with no neuron bodies.

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MIXED NERVE – function[a] This nerve has sensory and motor capabilities.

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PROPRIOCEPTION – define[a]This function includes awareness of position and motion of all body parts in space.

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INTEGRATION – define[a]This process allows sensory neurons to communicate with motor neurons. (only present in the CNS.)

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Glial Cells/Neuroglia – function[a]This type of cells support and protect the neurons.

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Schwann Cells/Neurolemmocytes – function[a]These cells insulate neurons with a fatty substance called myelin This allows impulses to travel quickly along the neurons and helps PNS neurons regenerate processes with the neurilemma.

[q]

Satellite Cells – function[a]This type of cells help support neurons in the ganglia of the PNS.

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Which glial cells are found in the PNS?[a] The Schwann Cells and Satellite cells.

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These glial cells are found in the CNS.[a]Astrocytes, Oligodendrocytes, Ependymal cells, Microglia.

[q]

Astrocytes – function[a] These cells create the blood brain barrier.

[q]

Oligodendrocytes – function[a]These cells create the myelin sheath for the CNS but no neurilemma.

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Ependymal cells – function[a]This type of ciliated epithelial cells line the ventricles of the brain and central canal of the spinal cord and help produce and circulate cerebrospinal fluid.

[q]

Microglia – function[a]This type of special white blood cells in the CNS eat debris, pathogens (disease causing organisms) and dead cells.

[/qdeck]

[qdeck]

[q]

Which type of cells support and protect the neurons?[a]Glial Cells/Neuroglia

[q]

Which process allows sensory neurons to communicate with motor neurons? (only present in the CNS)?[a]INTEGRATION

[q]

Which type of cells insulate neurons with a fatty substance called myelin which allows impulses to travel quickly along the neurons and helps PNS neurons regenerate processes with the neurilemma?[a]Schwann Cells/Neurolemmocytes

[q]

Which type of cells help support neurons in the ganglia of the PNS?[a]Satellite Cells

[q]

Where are the Schwann Cells and Satellite cells found?[a] PNS

[q]

Where are the Astrocytes, Oligodendrocytes, Ependymal cells, Microglia found?[a] CNS

[q]

Which type of cells create the blood brain barrier?[a]Astrocytes

[q]

Which type of ciliated epithelial cells line the ventricles of the brain and central canal of the spinal cord and help produce and circulate cerebrospinal fluid?[a]Ependymal cells

[q]

Which type of cells create the myelin sheath for the CNS but no neurilemma?[a]Oligodendrocytes

[q]

Which type of special white blood cells in the CNS eat debris, pathogens (disease causing organisms) and dead cells?[a]Microglia

[q]

The state of the body’s dynamic equilibrium in its internal environment is described as?[a]HOMEOSTASIS

[q]

What does the fluid that bathes the cells of the body compose?[a]Internal Environment

[q]

Which type of response cancels a stimulus?[a]Negative Feedback Mechanism

[q]

Which type of response enhances a stimulus?[a]Positive Feedback Mechanism

[q]

Which system is composed of the brain and spinal cord?[a]Central Nervous System

[q]

Which type of senses include touch, temperature, pressure, pain, stretch, chemical, & proprioceptors?[a] General senses

[q]

Peripheral Nervous Systemis composed of [a] 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves

[q]

Which type of senses include vision (sight), audition (sound), olfaction (smell), gustation (taste), and equilibrium (balance)?[a]Special Senses

[q]

What type of neurons innervate effectors?[a]Motor Neuron

[q]

Which type of neurons innervate skeletal muscle cells?[a]Somatic Motor Neuron

[q]

Which type of neurons innervate cardiac, smooth muscle and glands?[a]Autonomic Motor Neuron

[q]

In which part of the nervous system do the neurons emerge from the brain/cranium and sacral part of the spinal cord and function in Rest and Digest response?[a]Parasympathetic/Craniosacral Division

[q]

Which nervous system structure detects change in the environment?[a]RECEPTOR

[q]

Which structure/organ is innervated by the NS to performs tasks?[a]EFFECTOR

[q]

Which term means “activate”?[a]INNERVATE

[q]

Which term means NERVE FIBER/CELL?[a]NEURON

[q]

Which structure in the PNS is made of the bundles of axons with no neuron bodies?[a]NERVE

[q]

Which type of nerve has sensory and motor capabilities?[a]MIXED NERVE

[q]

Which sensen includes awareness of position and motion of all body parts in space?[a]PROPRIOCEPTION

[/qdeck]

[qdeck]

[q]

Dendrites – function[a]These neural processes carry impulses toward the soma.

[q]

Soma – define[a]This term describes a neuron cell body.

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Axon Hillock – define[a]This term describes the small raised area that connects soma to axon and acts as the trigger zone for most neurons.

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Axon – define[a]This term describes the long single process that comes off the soma and carries the impulse away.

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Axon Collateral – define[a]This term describes the branches of the main axon that carry the impulse to different places. (e.g. other muscle cells in a motor unit).

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Telodendria – define[a]This term describes the small extensions at the end of the axon.

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Synaptic End Bulb – define[a]This term describes the enlarged areas at the end of the telodendria.

[q]

Synaptic Vesicles – define[a]This term describes the storage areas in the synaptic end bulbs that contain chemicals called neurotransmitters.

[q]

Nodes of Ranvier – define[a]This term describes the spaces between the myelin on the neurons’ processes.

[q]

Na+/K+ Pumps – define[a]This term describes the special protein pumps embedded all along the neurons membrane that pump Na+ (sodium) and K+ (potassium) ions through the neuron membrane.

[q]

Gated Channels – define[a]This term describes the holes in the membrane of the neuron which allow ions to move in or out of the neuron passively when the gates are open.

[q]

What is the resting potential voltage?[a] -70 mV .

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Stimulus – define[a]This term describes a change in the environment that allows gated channels in one section of the neuron to open.

[q]

Threshold – define[a]This term describes the level of depolarization that must be reached for the neuron to fire an impulse. (Approximately –55mv)

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All or Nothing Law – define[a]This law states that when the axon hillock reaches threshold the neuron will send an impulse down the axon at constant and maximum strength.

[q]

Repolarization – define[a]This term describes when a section of a neuron goes from +30 mV back to -70 mV.

[q]

Depolarization – define[a]This term describes when Na+ enters a section of the neuron and the charge inside moves from –70mv toward 0mV on the way to +30 mV.

[q]

Continuous Conduction – define[a]This type of relatively slow conduction causes each adjacent segment to depolarize in sequence along the length of the neuron and occurs on unmyelinated neurons.

[q]

Saltatory Conduction – define[a]This type of conduction is the fastest and causes the impulse to jump from Node of Ranvier to Node of Ranvier along myelinated neurons.

[q]

Type A neurons – define[a]This type of neurons are the fastest – thick and myelinated. They convey the general and special senses and somatic motor function.

[q]

Type B neurons – define[a]This type of neurons are of medium speed – thin and myelinated.They are the first PNS neurons in the ANS pathway (preganglionic neuron) between CNS and autonomic ganglions.

[q]

Type C neurons – define[a]This type of neurons are slowest – thin and unmyelinated. They include the visceral sensory neurons, chronic pain neurons, and second ANS neuron in the pathway (postganglionic neuron) between the ganglia and the effector.

[q]

Multipolar neurons – location[a]PNS as autonomic and somatic motor neuronsand the entire CNS.

[q]

Bipolar neurons location[a]Optic and Olfactory nerves

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Unipolar/Pseudounipolar – define[a]These neurons have the dendrite and axon connected directly to each other with the soma off to the side. (Sensory neurons in the PNS)

[q]

SYNAPSE – define[a]This term describes the junction between two neurons, a neuron and a muscle (neuromuscular junction), or a neuron and a gland (neuroglandular junction).

[q]

Presynaptic neuron – define[a]This type of neuron carries signals to the synapse and releases the neurotransmitter (NT) into synaptic cleft.

[q]

Synaptic cleft – define[a]This term describes the space between the two neurons through which the neurotransmitter must travel.

[q]

Postsynaptic neuron – define[a]This type of neuron receives signals across the synapse.

[q]

Axoaxonic synapse – define[a]Synapse where the axon of presynaptic connect to the axon of postsynaptic neurons.

[q]

Axosomatic synapse – define[a]Synapse where the axon of presynaptic connect to the soma of postsynaptic neurons.

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Axodendritic synapse – define[a]Synapse where the axon of presynaptic connect to the dendrite of postsynaptic neurons.

[q]

Summation – define[a]The adding together of all excitatory and inhibitory signals in trigger zone of the postsynaptic neuron. (postsynaptic neuron can have 1,000s of presynaptic neurons connecting to it)

[q]

Excitatory neurotransmitter – action on gated channels[a]This type of neurotransmitter opens Na+ gates.

[q]

Inhibitory neurotransmitter – action on gated channels[a]This type of neurotransmitter opens K+ gates.

[q]

Facilitated neuron – define[a]This type of neuron has a potential between –70mv and threshold (-55mv) and is more likely to reach threshold and send an impulse.

[q]

Inhibited or hyperpolarized neuron – define[a]This type of neuron has a potential more negative than normal, below –70mv and is less likely to reach threshold and send an impulse.

[q]

What is a ganglia?[a] GREY MATTER IN PNS – clusters of neuron somas.

[q]

What is a nucleus?[a] GREY MATTER IN CNS – clusters of neuron somas.

[q]

What is a tract?[a]This term describes the WHITE MATTER IN CNS – myelinated axons.

[/qdeck]

[qdeck]

[q]

Which neural processes carry impulses toward the soma?[a]Dendrites

[q]

Which term describes a neuron cell body?[a]Soma

[q]

Which term describes the small raised area that connects soma to axon and acts as the trigger zone for most neurons?[a]Axon Hillock

[q]

Which term describes the long single process that comes off the soma and carries the impulse away?[a]Axon

[q]

Which term describes the branches off the main axon that carry the impulse to different places? (e.g. other muscle cells in a motor unit)[a]Axon Collateral

[q]

Which term describes the small extensions at the end of the axon?[a]Telodendria

[q]

Which term describes the enlarged areas at the end of the telodendria?[a]Synaptic End Bulb

[q]

Which term describes the storage areas in the synaptic end bulbs that contain chemicals called neurotransmitters?[a]Synaptic Vesicles

[q]

Which term describes the spaces between the myelin on the neurons’ processes?[a]Nodes of Ranvier

[q]

Which term describes the special protein pumps embedded all along the neurons membrane that pump ions through the neuron membrane?[a]Na+/K+ Pumps

[q]

Which term describes the holes in the membrane of the neuron which allow ions to move in or out of the neuron passively when the gates are open?[a]Gated Channels

[q]

Why is -70 mV an important number?[a] It is the resting potential voltage

[q]

Which term describes a change in the environment that causess gated channels in one section of the neuron to open?[a]Stimulus

[q]

Which term describes the level of depolarization that must be reached for the neuron to fire an impulse? (Approximately –55mv)[a]Threshold

[q]

Which law states that when the axon hillock reaches threshold the neuron will send an impulse at constant and maximum strength?[a]All or None principle

[q]

Which term describes when a section of a neuron goes from +30 mV back to -70 mV?[a]Repolarization

[q]

Which term describes when Na+ enters a section of the neuron and the charge inside moves from –70mv toward 0mV on the way to +30 mV?[a]Depolarization

[q]

Which slow type conduction causes each adjacent segment to depolarize in sequence along the length of the neuron and occurs on unmyelinated neurons?[a]Continuous Conduction

[q]

Which type of conduction is the fastest and causes the impulse to jump from Node of Ranvier to Node of Ranvier along myelinated neurons?[a]Saltatory Conduction

[q]

In what direction does an impulse travel along a neuron?[a]from Dendrite to Soma to Axon

[q]

Which type of neurons are fastest – thick, myelinated, and innervate the general and special senses and somatic motor neurons?[a]Type A neurons

[q]

Which type of neurons are medium speed – thin, myelinated, and are the first PNS neurons in the Autonomic motor pathway (preganglionic neuron)[a]Type B neurons

[q]

Which type of neurons are slowest, – thin, unmyelinated and include the visceral sensory neurons, chronic pain neurons and ANS postganglionic neurons[a]Type C neurons

[q]

What are the factors that effect the speed of impulse transmission?[a]Myelination, Diameter, and Temperature of a neuron

[q]

Which neurons make up the entire CNS and the somatic motor PNS[a]Multipolar neurons

[q]

Which neurons are found only in the Olfactory and Optic nerves?[a]Bipolar neurons

[q]

Which neurons have the dendrite and axon connected directly to each other with the soma off to the side? (Sensory neurons in the PNS)[a]Unipolar/Pseudounipolar

[q]

Which term describes the junction between two neurons, a neuron and a muscle (neuromuscular junction), or a neuron and a gland (neuroglandular junction)?[a]SYNAPSE

[q]

Which type of neuron carries signals to the synapse and releases the neurotransmitter (NT) into synaptic cleft?[a]Presynaptic neuron

[q]

Which term describes the space between the two neurons through which the neurotransmitter must travel?[a]Synaptic cleft

[q]

Which type of neuron receives signals across the synapse?[a]Postsynaptic neuron

[q]

In which type of synapse does the axon of presynaptic connect to the axon of postsynaptic neurons?[a]Axoaxonic synapse

[q]

In which type of synapse does the axon of presynaptic connect to the soma of postsynaptic neurons?[a]Axosomatic synapse

[q]

In which type of synapse does the axon of presynaptic connect to the dendrite of postsynaptic neurons?[a]Axodendritic synapse

[q]

Which term describes the adding together of all excitatory and inhibitory signals in trigger zone of a neuron?[a] summation

[q]

Which type of neurotransmitter opens Na+ gates?[a]Excitatory neurotransmitter

[q]

Which type of neurotransmitter opens K+ gates?[a]Inhibitory neurotransmitter

[q]

Which type of neuron has a potential between –70mv and threshold (-55mv) and is more likely to reach threshold and send an impulse?[a]Facilitated neuron

[q]

Which type of neuron has a potential more negative than normal, (below –70mv) and is less likely to reach threshold and send an impulse?[a]Inhibited or hyperpolarized neuron

[q]

Which term describes the GREY MATTER IN PNS?[a]Ganglia

[q]

Which term describes the GREY MATTER IN CNS?[a]Nucleus

[q]

Which term describes the WHITE MATTER IN CNS?[a]Tract

[/qdeck]

[qdeck]

[q]

Lymphatic system – functions[a]This system removes excess tissue fluid and plasma proteins leaked from capillaries into tissue space, filter/clean lymph, maintains lymphocytes and absorbs fats.

[q]

Lymphatic system structure[a]This system is composed of lymph capillaries, lacteals, lymphatic vessels, trunks and ducts.

[q]

Lymphahtic system – location[a]This system is found in all vascular tissue except bones, teeth, bone marrow and CNS.

[q]

Lacteals – define[a]This term describes the type of capillaries in the small intestine.

[q]

Lymph capillary – structure[a]This structure is composed of a single layer of endothelial cells that overlap slightly, forming minivalves.

[q]

What is the effect of hydrostatic blood pressure on the plasma in the capillaries?[a]This force moves blood plasma out of capillaries into interstitial spaces.

[q]

What is the effect of osmotic pressure on the interstitial fluid?[a]This force draws interstitial fluid into capillaries from interstitial spaces.

[q]

Lymph vessel – structure[a]This structure is composed of the same 3 tunics as veins but the walls are thinner and have more valves.

[q]

Right lymph duct – function[a]This structure drains lymph from right arm, right side of head, right thorax into the right subclavian vein.

[q]

Thoracic duct – function[a]This structure drains lymph from lower extremities, left side thorax, left upper extremity, left side of head into the left subclavian vein.

[q]

Cisterna chyli – function[a]This sac-like structure drains lymph from lower extremities and intestinal trunk into the thoracic duct.

[q]

Cisterna chyli – location[a]This sac-like structure is level with L1, L2.

[q]

How long does it take for the body to produce 3 liters of lymph?[a]How much lymph is produced by the body each day.

[q]

What drives lymph circulation?[a]This process is performed by skeletal muscle compression, respiration and smooth muscle vessel contraction.

[q]

Lymph nodes – describe[a]This structures are oval shaped capsules containing lymphocytes and macrophages.

[q]

Afferent lymphatics – direction of flow[a]These vessels allow lymph to flow into lymph nodes.

[q]

Efferent lymphatics – direction of flow[a]This vessels allows lymph to flow out of lymph nodes.

[q]

Diffuse lymphatic tissue – describe[a]This structure is unencapsulated and consists of reticular CT fibers and WBC’s.

[q]

Lymphatic nodules – describe[a]This structures are composed of concentrated oval shaped areas of lymph tissue lacking a capsule.

[q]

Diffuse lymphatic tissue – location[a]This structure is found lining mucous membranes of GI, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts.

[q]

Diffuse lymphatic tissue – function[a]This structure forms a second protective barrier behind the mucous membranes.

[q]

Primary lymph organs – function[a]These organs are the sites of B and T cell production and maturation.

[q]

Primary Lymph Organs – list[a]This type of organ includes the bone marrow and thymus.

[q]

Secondary lymph organs – function[a]These organs are where B cells and T cells live and work.

[q]

Secondary lymph organs – list[a] lymph nodes, spleen and tonsils.

[q]

Spleen – function[a] monitors blood for pathogenic organisms and has macrophages to remove old platelets, erythrocytes and debris from blood.

[q]

Spleen – describe[a] fist sized capsule located in left upper quadrant of abdomen containing blood vessels & efferent lymph vessels.

[q]

Lymphyedema – define[a]This term describes swelling of a limb often due to removal of lymph nodes and vessels.

[q]

Systemic edema – define[a]This term describes an excess of tissue fluid in entire body, often due to high blood pressure, liver failure or blockage of the lymph system.

[/qdeck]

[qdeck]

[q]

Which term describes an excess of tissue fluid in entire body, often due to high blood pressure, liver failure or blockage of the lymph system?[a]Systemic edema

[q]

Which term describes swelling of a limb often due to removal of lymph nodes and vessels?[a]Lymphyedema

[q]

Which organ is a fist sized capsule located in left upper quadrant of abdomen containing blood vessels & efferent lymph vessels?[a]Spleen

[q]

Which organ monitors blood for pathogenic organisms and has macrophages to remove old platelets, erythrocytes and debris from blood?[a]Spleen

[q]

Which type of organs include lymph nodes, spleen and tonsils?[a]Secondary lymph organs

[q]

Where do you find B cells and T cells?[a]Secondary lymph organs

[q]

Which type of organs include the bone marrow and thymus?[a]Primary Lymph Organs

[q]

Which organs are the sites of B and T cell production and maturation?[a]Primary lymph organs

[q]

Which structure forms a second protective barrier behind the mucous membranes?[a]Diffuse lymphatic tissue

[q]

Which structure is found lining mucous membranes of GI, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts?[a]Diffuse lymphatic tissue

[q]

Which structures are composed of concentrated oval shaped areas of lymph tissue lacking a capsule?[a]Lymphatic nodules

[q]

Which structure is unencapsulated and consists of reticular CT fibers and WBC’s?[a]Diffuse lymphatic tissue

[q]

Which vessels allow lymph to flow out of lymph nodes?[a] Efferent lymphatics

[q]

Which vessels allow lymph to flow into lymph nodes?[a]Afferent lymphatics

[q]

Which structures are oval shaped capsules containing lymphocytes and macrophages?[a]Lymph nodes

[q]

Which process is performed by skeletal muscle compression, respiration and smooth muscle vessel contraction?[a]lymph circulation

[q]

How much lymph is produced by the body each day?[a]3 liters

[q]

Which sac-like structure is level with L1, L2?[a]Cisterna chyli

[q]

Which sac-like structure drains lymph from lower extremities and intestinal trunk into the thoracic duct?[a]Cisterna chyli

[q]

Which structure drains lymph from lower extremities, left side thorax, left upper extremity, left side of head into the left subclavian vein?[a]Thoracic duct

[q]

Which structure drains lymph from right arm, right side of head, right thorax into the right subclavian vein?[a]Right lymph duct

[q]

Which structure is composed of the same 3 tunics as veins but the walls are thinner and have more valves?[a]Lymph vessel

[q]

Which force draws interstitial fluid into capillaries from interstitial spaces?[a]osmotic pressure

[q]

Which force moves blood plasma out of capillaries into interstitial spaces?[a]hydrostatic blood pressure

[q]

Which structure is composed of a single layer of endothelial cells that overlap slightly, forming minivalves?[a]Lymph capillary

[q]

Which term describes the type of capillaries in the small intestine?[a]Lacteals

[q]

Which system is found in all vascular tissue except bones, teeth, bone marrow and CNS?[a]Lymphahtic system

[q]

Which system is composed of lymph capillaries, lacteals, lymphatic vessels, trunks and ducts?[a]Lymphatic system

[q]

Which system removes excess tissue fluid and plasma proteins leaked from capillaries into tissue space, filter/clean lymph, maintains lymphocytes and absorbs fats?[a]Lymphatic system

[/qdeck]

[qdeck]

[q]

Arteries & arterioles – function[a]This type of vessel carrys blood away from the heart

[q]

Capillaries – function[a]This type of vessel allow nutrient exchange between blood and surrounding tissues

[q]

Veins & venules – function[a]This type of vessel carrys blood towards the heart

[q]

Vaso Vasorum – define[a]This term describes the networks of small blood vessels in walls of larger blood vessels which bring nutrients to deeper layers in vessel walls

[q]

Elastic/Conducting arteries – describe[a] This type of artery is located closer to heart and has a higher proportion of elastic CT in the tunica media

[q]

Tunica interna – define[a]This layer of vessel is in contact with blood, composed of simple squamous epithelium and continuous with epicardium of heart

[q]

Tunica media – define[a]This layer of vessel is the middle layer and consists of smooth muscle and elastic CT

[q]

Tunica externa – define[a]This layer of vessel is outermost and consists of elastic CT and collagen fibers

[q]

Muscular/Distributing arteries – location[a]This type of arteries are located farther from heart

[q]

Lumen – define[a]This term describes the hollow space through which blood flows

[q]

Arteries – structure[a]This type of vessels have the thickest walls and highest blood pressure

[q]

Veins – structure[a]This type of vessels have the lowest blood pressure and largest lumen

[q]

Capillaries – structure[a]This type of vessels have the thinnest walls

[q]

Venules – structure[a]This type of vessels have no tunica media but do have a tunica interna and externa

[q]

Arterioles – structure[a]This type of vessels have no tunica externa but do have a tunica interna and media

[q]

True capaillaries – structure[a]This type of vessels have only a tunica interna and precapillary sphincters

[q]

Thoroughfare channels – define[a]This type of vessels have no precapillary sphincters and drain into venules

[q]

Metaarteriole – define[a]This type of vessels have no precapillary sphincters and drain into thoroughfare channels

[q]

Fenestrated capaillaries – define[a]This type of vessels are perforated with numerous pores and located where capillary filtration or absorption is required

[q]

Sinusoids – define[a]This type of capillaries have large lumens, irregular shape, many intercellular clefts, large fenestrations, often lined with macrophages

[q]

Sinusoids – location[a]This type of capillaries are located in the liver, bone marrow and lymphoid tissue

[q]

Fenestrated capaillaries – location[a]This type of vessels are located in the kidneys, small intestines, endocrine glands, ciliary processes of eye

[q]

Arteries flow into what?[a]This type of vessels flow into arterioles

[q]

Veins flow into what?[a]This type of vessels flow into the heart

[q]

Capillaries flow into what?[a]This type of vessels flow into venules

[q]

Venules flow into what?[a]This type of vessels flow into veins

[q]

Arterioles flow into what?[a]This type of vessels flow into capillaries

[q]

Varicose veins – define[a]This term describes veins in which valves have failed, leaving them distended and tortuous.

[q]

Veins hold what percentage of blood?[a]Veins hold 65% of the whole blood

[q]

Aneurysm – define[a]This term describes a distention of artery wall

[/qdeck]

[qdeck]

[q]

Which term describes a distention of artery wall?[a]Aneurysm

[q]

Which type of vessels hold 65% of the whole blood?[a]Veins

[q]

Which term describes veins in which valves have failed?[a]Varicose veins

[q]

Which type of vessels flow into capillaries?[a]Arterioles

[q]

Which type of vessels flow into veins?[a]Venules

[q]

Which type of vessels flow into venules?[a]Capillaries

[q]

Which type of vessels flow into the heart?[a]Veins

[q]

Which type of vessels flow into arterioles?[a]Arteries

[q]

Which type of vessels are located in the kidneys, small intestines, endocrine glands, ciliary processes of eye?[a]Fenestrated capaillaries – location

[q]

Which type of capillaries are located in the liver, bone marrow and lymphoid tissue?[a]Sinusoids

[q]

Which type of capillaries have large lumens, irregular shape, many intercellular clefts, large fenestrations, often lined with macrophages?[a]Sinusoids

[q]

Which type of vessels are perforated with numerous pores and located where capillary filtration or absorption is required?[a]Fenestrated capaillaries

[q]

Which type of vessels have no precapillary sphincters and drain into thoroughfare channels?[a]Metaarteriole

[q]

Which type of vessels have no precapillary sphincters and drain into venules?[a]Thoroughfare channels

[q]

Which type of vessels have only a tunica interna and precapillary sphincters?[a]True capaillaries

[q]

Which type of vessels have no tunica externa but do have a tunica interna and media?[a]Arterioles

[q]

Which type of vessels have no tunica media but do have a tunica interna and externa?[a]Venules

[q]

Which type of vessels have the thinnest walls?[a]Capillaries

[q]

Which type of vessels have the lowest blood pressure and largest lumen?[a]Veins

[q]

Which type of vessels have the thickest walls and highest blood pressure?[a]Arteries

[q]

Which term describes the hollow space through which blood flows?[a]Lumen

[q]

Which type arteries are located further from heart?[a]Muscular/Distributing arteries

[q]

Which layer of vessel is outermost and consists of elastic CT and collagen fibers?[a]Tunica externa

[q]

Which layer of vessel is the middle layer and consists of smooth muscle and elastic CT?[a]Tunica media

[q]

Which layer of vessel is in contact with blood, composed of simple squamous epithelium and continuous with epicardium of heart?[a]Tunica interna

[q]

Which type of arteries are located closer to heart and have a higher proportion of elastic CT in the tunica media?[a]Elastic/Conducting arteries

[q]

Which term describes the networks of small blood vessels in walls of larger blood vessels which bring nutrients to deeper layers in vessel walls?[a]Vaso Vasorum

[q]

Which type of vessels carry blood towards the heart?[a]Veins & venules

[q]

Which type of vessels allow nutrient exchange between blood and surrounding tissues?[a]Capillaries

[q]

Which type of vessels carry blood away from the heart?[a]Arteries & arterioles

[/qdeck]

[qdeck]

[q]

Ascending aorta – carries blood to[a]the arch of the aorta and the coronary arteries

[q]

Arch of the aorta – carries blood to[a]left common carotid artery, the brachiocephalic artery, the left subclavian artery,the descending aorta

[q]

Coronary arteries – carry blood to[a]the myocardium

[q]

Brachiocephalic trunk – carries blood to[a] the right subclavian artery and the right common carotid artery

[q]

Right common carotid artery – carries blood to[a] the right internal and external carotid arteries

[q]

Right internal carotid artery – carries blood to[a] the circle of Willis

[q]

Circle of Willis – carries blood to[a] the cerebral arteries

[q]

Cerebral arteries – carries blood to[a] the brain

[q]

Brain – blood drains into[a] the venous sinuses

[q]

Venous sinuses – drain blood into[a] internal jugular veins

[q]

Internal jugular veins – drain blood into[a] the brachiocephalic veins

[q]

Brachiocephalic vein – drains blood into[a] the Superior Vena Cava (SVC)

[q]

Superior Vena Cava (SVC) – drains blood into[a] the right atrium

[q]

External jugular veins – drain blood into[a] the subclavian vein

[q]

Basilar artery – carries blood to[a]Circle of Willis

[q]

Vertebral arteries – carry blood to[a] the basilar artery

[q]

Subclavian artery – carries blood to[a] the axillary artery

[q]

Axillary artery – carries blood to[a] the brachial artery

[q]

Brachial artery – carries blood to[a] radial and ulnar arteries

[q]

Radial and ulnar arteries – carry blood to[a] palmer arches

[q]

Palmer arches – carry blood to[a] the digital arteries

[q]

Digital veins – drain blood into[a] the palmer venous arches

[q]

Palmer venous arches – drain blood into[a]the radial and ulnar veins

[q]

Radial & ulnar veins – drain blood into[a] the brachial veins

[q]

Brachial veins – drain blood into[a]the axillary veins

[q]

Axillary veins – drain blood into[a] the subclavian veins

[q]

Basilic veins – drain blood into[a] the brachial veins

[q]

Cephalic veins – drain blood into[a] the subclavian veins

[q]

External carotid arteries – carry blood to[a] the face and skull

[q]

External jugular veins – drain blood from[a] the face and skull

[q]

Thoracic aorta – carries blood to[a] superior phrenic, esophageal, mediastinal and intercostal arteries

[q]

Abdominal aorta – carries blood to[a] celiac, superior, inferior mesenterinc, renal, suprarenal & lumbar arteries

[q]

Abdominal aorta – carries blood to[a]the right and left Common Iliac arteries

[q]

Celiac trunk – flows into[a]the hepatic, splenic and left gastric arteries

[q]

Superior & inferior mesenteric, gastric, esophageal, pancreatic and splenic veins – drain blood into[a] the hepatic portal vein

[q]

Hepatic portal vein – drains blood into[a] the liver

[q]

Hepatic artery – carries blood to[a]the liver (oxygenated)

[q]

Liver – drains blood into[a]the hepatic veins

[q]

Hepatic veins – drain blood into[a] the IVC

[/qdeck]

[qdeck]

[q]

From which vessel does the liver receive deoxygenated blood?[a]Hepatic portal vein

[q]

From which vessels does the hepatic portal vein receive blood?[a]Superior & inferior mesenteric, gastric, esophageal, pancreatic and splenic veins

[q]

From which vessel do the hepatic, splenic and left gastric arteries receive blood?[a]Celiac trunk – flows into

[q]

From which vessel do the right and left Common Iliac arteries receive blood?[a]Abdominal aorta

[q]

From which vessel do the celiac, superior, inferior mesenterinc, renal, suprarenal & lumbar arteries receive blood?[a]Abdominal aorta

[q]

From which vessel do the superior phrenic, esophageal, mediastinal and intercostal arteries receive blood?[a]Thoracic aorta

[q]

Which vessels drain the face and skull[a]External jugular veins

[q]

Which vessels nourish the face and skull?[a]External carotid arteries

[q]

From which vessels do the subclavian veins receive blood?[a]Cephalic veins and Axillary veins

[q]

From which vessels do the brachial veins receive blood?[a]Basilic veins

[q]

From which vessels do the axillary veins receive blood?[a]Brachial veins

[q]

From which vessels do the brachial veins receive blood?[a]Radial & ulnar veins

[q]

From which vessels do the radial and ulnar veins receive blood?[a]Palmer venous arches

[q]

From which vessels do the palmer venous arches receive blood?[a]Digital veins

[q]

From which vessels do the digital arteries receive blood?[a]Palmer arches

[q]

From which vessels do the palmer arches receive blood?[a]Radial and ulnar arteries

[q]

From which vessels do the radial and ulnar arteries receive blood?[a]Brachial artery

[q]

From which vessels does the brachial artery receive blood?[a]Axillary artery

[q]

From which vessels does the axillary artery receive blood?[a]Subclavian artery

[q]

From which vessels does the basilar artery receive blood?[a]Vertebral arteries

[q]

From which vessels does the subclavian vein receive blood?[a]External jugular veins

[q]

From which vessels does the right atrium receive blood?[a]Superior Vena Cava (SVC) and Inferior Vena Cava (IVC) and coronary sinus

[q]

From which vessels does the Superior Vena Cava (SVC) receive blood?[a]Brachiocephalic vein

[q]

From which vessels do the brachiocephalic veins receive blood?[a]Internal jugular veins

[q]

From which vessels do the internal jugular veins receive blood?[a]Venous sinuses

[q]

The venous sinuses drain blood from which organ?[a]Brain

[q]

From which vessels does the brain receive blood?[a]Cerebral arteries

[q]

From which vessels do the cerebral arteries receive blood?[a]Circle of Willis

[q]

From which vessels does the circle of Willis receive blood?[a]Internal carotid arteries and Basilar artery

[q]

From which vessels do the right internal and external carotid arteries receive blood?[a]Right common carotid artery

[q]

From which vessel does the right subclavian artery and the right common carotid artery receive blood?[a]Brachiocephalic trunk

[q]

From which vessels does the heart receive blood?[a]Coronary arteries

[q]

From which vessel does the descending aorta receive blood?[a]Arch of the aorta

[q]

From which vessel does the left subclavian artery receive blood?[a]Arch of the aorta

[q]

From which vessel does the left common carotid artery receive blood?[a]Arch of the aorta

[q]

From which vessel does the brachiocephalic artery receive blood?[a]Arch of the aorta

[q]

From which vessel do the coronary arteries receive blood?[a]Ascending aorta

[q]

From which vessel does the arch of the aorta receive blood?[a]Ascending aorta

[/qdeck]

[qdeck]

[q]

The renal veins drain blood into[a] the IVC

[q]

The kidneys drain blood into[a]the renal veins

[q]

Common iliac artery carries blood to[a] the internal and external iliac arteries

[q]

The internal iliac artery carries blood to[a] the groin

[q]

The external iliac artery carries blood to[a] the femoral artery

[q]

The femoral artery carries blood to[a] the popliteal artery

[q]

The poplitel artery carries blood to[a] the anterior and posterior tibial arteries

[q]

The posterior tibial artery carries blood to[a] the medial and lateral plantar arteries

[q]

The anterior tibial artery carries blood to[a] the dorsalis pedis artery

[q]

The posterior tibial artery carries blood to[a] the peroneal artery

[q]

The azygos vein drains blood into[a] the SVC

[q]

The right ascending lumbar vein drains blood into[a] the azygos vein

[q]

The hemiazygos vein drains blood into[a] the azygos vein

[q]

The accessory hemiazygos vein drains blood into[a] the azygos vein

[q]

The right side of the chest and abdominal walls drain into[a] the azygos vein?

[q]

The left side of the abdominal wall drains blood into[a] the hemiazygos vein?

[q]

The left side of the chest wall -drains blood into[a] into the accessory hemiazygos vein?

[q]

The lateral leg compartment drains blood into[a] area does the peroneal vein

[q]

The posterior leg compartment drains blood into[a] the posterior tibial vein

[q]

The anterior leg compartment drains blood into[a] the anterior tibial vein

[q]

The great saphenous vein drains blood into[a] the femoral vein

[q]

The small saphenous vein drains blood into[a] the popliteal vein

[q]

The anterior and posterior tibial veins drain blood into[a] the popliteal vein

[q]

The popliteal vein drains blood into[a]the femoral vein

[q]

The femoral vein drains blood into[a] the external iliac vein

[q]

The external and internal iliac veins drain blood into[a] the common iliac vein

[q]

The right and left common iliac veins -merge and drain blood into[a] the IVC (located at L4)

[q]

Varicose Vein – define[a] a distended vein that is caused by a leaky valve

[q]

Aneurysm – define[a] a distension in an artery

[q]

Myocardial infarct – define[a] a blockage of a coronary artery causes cardiac tissue to become ischemic and die

[q]

Stroke (CVA) – define[a] blockage of a cerebral artery causes brain tissue to become ischemic and die

[q]

Anastamosis – define[a] an alternate route for blood to flow

[q]

Median cubital vein is an anastamosis between what vessels?[a] the basislic and cepahlic veins

[q]

The descending aorta splits and carries blood to[a]the right and left common iliac ateries

[q]

The right and left brachiocephalic veins merge and drain blood to[a] the SVC

[q]

The internal jugular and subclavian veins merge and drain blood into[a] brachiocephalic veins

[q]

In which arteries can a pulse be felt?[a] radial, axillary, superficial, temporal, carotid, femoral and dorsalis pedis arteries

[/qdeck]

[qdeck]

[q]

From which vessels do the brachiocephalic veins receives blood?[a]The internal jugular and subclavian veins

[q]

From which vessels does the SVC receives blood?[a]The right and left brachiocephalic veins

[q]

From which vessels (located at L4) do the right and left common iliac ateries receive blood?[a]The descending aorta

[q]

Which vessel is an anastamosis between the basislic and cepahlic veins?[a]Median cubital vein

[q]

Which term describes an alternate route for blood to flow?[a]Anastamosis

[q]

Which term describes when blockage of a cerebral artery causes brain tissue to become ischemic and die?[a]Stroke (CVA)

[q]

Which term describes when a blockage of a coronary artery causes cardiac tissue to become ischemic and die?[a]Myocardial infarct

[q]

Which term describes a distension in an artery?[a]Aneurysm

[q]

Which term describes a distended vein that is caused by a leaky valve?[a]Varicose Vein

[q]

From which vessels does the IVC (located at L4) form a junction and receive blood?[a]The right and left common iliac veins

[q]

From which vessels does the common iliac vein receive blood?[a]The external and internal iliac veins

[q]

From which vessels does the external iliac vein receive blood?[a]The femoral vein

[q]

From which vessel does the popliteal vein receive blood?[a]The tibial, common peroneal and small saphenous vein

[q]

From which vessel does the femoral vein receive blood?[a]The popliteal and great saphenous vein

[q]

From which body area does the anterior tibial vein receive blood?[a]The anterior leg compartment

[q]

From which body area does the posterior tibial vein receive blood?[a]The posterior leg compartment

[q]

From which body area does the peroneal vein receive blood?[a]The lateral leg compartment

[q]

Which area of the body wall drains directly into the accessory hemiazygos vein?[a]The left side of the chest wall -drains blood into

[q]

Which area of the body wall drains directly into the hemiazygos vein?[a]The left side of the abdominal wall

[q]

Which area of the body wall drains directly into the azygos vein?[a]The right side of the chest and abdominal walls

[q]

From which vessel does the hemiazygos vein receive blood?[a]The left ascending lumbar vein

[q]

From which vessel does the azygos vein receive blood?[a]The hemiazygos and accessory hemiazygos vein

[q]

From which vessel does the azygos vein receive blood?[a]The right ascending lumbar vein

[q]

From which vessel does the SVC receive blood?[a]The azygos vein

[q]

From which vessel does the peroneal artery receive blood?[a]The posterior tibial artery

[q]

From which vessel does the dorsalis pedis artery receive blood?[a]The anterior tibial artery

[q]

From which vessel do the medial and lateral plantar arteries receive blood?[a]The posterior tibial artery

[q]

From which vessel do the anterior and posterior tibial arteries receive blood?[a]The poplitel artery

[q]

From which vessel does the popliteal artery receive blood?[a]The femoral artery

[q]

From which vessel does the femoral artery receive blood?[a]The external iliac artery

[q]

From which vessel does the groin receive blood?[a]The internal iliac artery

[q]

From which vessel do the internal and external iliac arteries receive blood?[a]Common iliac artery

[q]

From which organs do the renal veins receive blood?[a]The kidneys

[q]

From which vessels does the IVC receive blood?[a]The R and L Common Iliac Veins

[/qdeck]

[qdeck]

[q]

HEMATOLOGY – define[a] This term describes the study of blood.

[q]

BLOOD – define[a]This term describes a liquid connective tissue composed of cells and fluid.

[q]

BLOOD – functions[a]TRANSPORTATION, REGULATION, PROTECTION inside the body.

[q]

Body temperature & pH are regulated by what tissue?[a]blood.

[q]

Plasma – percentage of blood[a] 55% of blood.

[q]

Blood cells – percentage of blood[a] 45% of blood.

[q]

7.35 – 7.45 That’s not lotto, but what is it?[a] This is the normal range of pH in blood.

[q]

Water – percentage of plasma[a]Water composes 91% of plasma.

[q]

Proteins – percentage of plasma[a] Proteins are 7% of plasma.

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Solutes – percentage of plasma[a]Solutes are 2% of plasma.

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Albumins, globulins & clotting proteins – define[a]These proteins are collectively known as plasma proteins.

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ALBUMIN – function[a]This substances creates COLLOID OSMOTIC PRESSURE.

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GLOBULINS – function[a]These plasma proteins fight antigens.

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CLOTTING PROTEINS – list[a] PROTHROMBIN and FIBRINOGEN.

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Hemostasis – define[a]This term describes blood clotting.

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Suspension – define[a]This is how blood cells are carried in the bloodstream.

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Solutes – define[a]Materials dissolved in blood plasma.

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What cell lives about 120 days?[a] RBCs.

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How fast are RBC’s produced?[a] 2 million/sec- rate of cell production/destruction.

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THROMBOCYTES aka[a]platelets.

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LEUKOCYTES – aka[a]WBC’s

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ERYTHROCYTES – aka[a] red blood cells

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ERYTHROCYTES – describe[a]Very small, non nucleated cells filled with hemoglobin.

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HEMOGLOBIN – define[a]an oxygen carryting protein molecule with 4 atoms of iron embedded in it.

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HEMOPOIESIS – define[a]This term describes blood cell production.

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Red bone marrow – function[a]This tissue is the site of HEMOPOIESIS.

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Yellow bone marrow – function[a]In this type of marrow fat is stored.

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MYELOID TISSUE – define[a]This term describes bone marrow.

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LYMPHOID TISSUES – list[a] marrow, thymus, spleen, tonsils, lymph nodes and lymph vessels.

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VASCULAR SPASM – define[a]This term describes how blood vessel injury causes constriction.

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Which term describes the study of blood?[a]HEMATOLOGY

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Which term describes a liquid connective tissue composed of cells and fluid?[a]BLOOD

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Which substances are carried in blood?[a]Oxygen, carbon dioxide, glucose, amino acids, fatty acids, Ca++, Na+, K+, water, uric acid, ammonia & urea

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Which homeostatic systems are regulated by blood?[a]Body temperature & pH

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Which substance composes 55% of blood?[a]Plasma

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Which substance composes 45% of blood?[a]Blood cells

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What is the normal range of pH in blood?[a]7.35 – 7.45

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Which substance composes 91% of plasma?[a]Water

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Which substances make up 7% of plasma?[a]Proteins

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Which substances make ups 2% of plasma?[a]Solutes

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Which solutes are carried in blood?[a]ELECTROLYTES, NUTRIENTS, GASES, WASTES, HORMONES, ENZYMES & VITAMINS

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Which proteins are collectively known as plasma proteins?[a]Albumins, globulins & clotting proteins

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Which substances creates COLLOID OSMOTIC PRESSURE?[a]ALBUMINS

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Which plasma proteins fight antigens?[a]GLOBULINS

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What are PROTHROMBIN and FIBRINOGEN?[a]CLOTTING PROTEINS

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Which term describes blood clotting?[a]Hemostasis

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How are blood cells carried in blood?[a]Suspension

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What is dissolved in blood?[a]Solutes

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How many RBC are there in 1 mm of blood?[a]5 million/mm

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How many WBC are there in 1 mm of blood?[a]5000 to 9000/mm

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How many Platelets are there in 1 mm of blood?[a]150000 – 350000 per cubic mm

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What is the lifespan of RBCs?[a]120 days

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What is the lifespan of WBCs?[a]Variable lifespan, hours to years

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How quickly are RBC produced and destroyed?[a]2 million/sec- rate of cell production/destruction.

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Which term describes platelets?[a]THROMBOCYTES

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White blood cells aka[a]LEUKOCYTES

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red blood cells aka[a]ERYTHROCYTES

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Which cells are very small, non nucleated, and filled with hemoglobin?[a]ERYTHROCYTES

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Which structure consists of a protein molecule with 4 atoms of iron embedded in it?[a]HEMOGLOBIN

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Which term describes blood cell production?[a]HEMOPOIESIS

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Which tissue is the site of HEMOPOIESIS[a]Red bone marrow

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In which type of marrow is fat stored?[a]Yellow bone marrow

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Which term describes bone marrow?[a]MYELOID TISSUE

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Which term describes how blood vessel injury causes constriction?[a]VASCULAR SPASM

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RBCs – shape[a]These cells have a small biconcave shape.

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RBCs – function[a]These Cells takes care of gas transport and exchange.

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ERYTHROPOIESIS – define[a]production of RBCs

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HEMATOCRIT – define[a]This is the percent of whole blood that is composed of RBC’s.

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ANEMIA – define[a]This is a lower than normal hematocrit.

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What are the causes of ANEMIA?[a]Caused by genes(sickle cell) diet auto-immune disease hemorrhage radiation or chemotherapy.

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LEUKOCYTES – function[a]These cells search for and destroy foreign invaders.

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Sinusoids of the liver and spleen – function[a]This is where old blood cells are broken down?

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DIAPEDISIS – define[a]This is the OOZING or SQUEEZING of fluid though blood vessel walls into interstitial spaces.

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AMEBOID MOTION – define[a]This is how WBC’s swim through connective and interstitial tissues.

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CHEMOTAXIS – define[a]This is how WBCs respond to CHEMICALS being given off by dying cells. (they act like blood hounds)

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PHAGOCYTOSIS & PINOCYTOSIS – define[a]This is how WBC’s envelop a solid or a liquid.

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GRANULOCYTES – describe[a]These WBC’s have granules containing chemicals.

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GRANULOCYTES – list[a]NEUTROPHILS EOSINOPHILS BASOPHILS.

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NEUTROPHILS contain what chemical in their granules?[a]LYSOZYME to destroy bacteria and other cooties.

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EOSINOPHILS contain what chemical in their granules?[a]Which type of cells contain ANTIHISTAMINES?

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BASOPHILS contain what chemical in their granules?[a]Which type of cells contain histamine heparin and serotonin?

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HISTAMINES – function[a]These enhances inflammation.

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NEUTROPHILS – function[a]These phagocytotic & mobile cells are the FIRST LINE OF DEFENSE against invading microbes.

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NEUTROPHILS are what percentage of WBC’s?[a]70%

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EOSINOPHILS – function[a]These cells reduce inflammation eat antigen-antibody complexes as well as certain worms.

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BASOPHILS – function[a]These cells enhance inflammation and can become mast cells.

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AGRANULOCYTES – describe[a]These cells have no chemically filled granules.

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LYMPHOCYTES – define[a]These cells are part of the IMMUNE system are created in red bone marrow & MATURE in lymphatic tissue.

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ANTIGENS – define[a]This is a foreign cell or molecule triggering the generation of antibodies.

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T-LYMPHOCYTES – function[a]These cells attack antigens and infected body cells

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B-LYMPHOCYTES – function[a]These cells produce antibodies to destroy or disable antigens.

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NATURAL KILLER CELLS – function[a]These cells attack abnormal body cells.

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Memory B and T cells – lifespan/function[a]Which type of cells stay in the body for years and protect against repeated exposure to a given antigen.

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Antibodies – define[a]These proteins are made by Plasma B cells to attack antigens.

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Immunity – define[a]This is the body’s ability to recognize and fight against a re-infection of disease.

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Resistance – define[a]This is the body’s ability to fight disease regardless of previous exposure.

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MONOCYTES – define[a]THESE cells are very large PHAGOCYTIC immune cells (macrophages).

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WANDERING MACROPHAGES – define[a]These cells travel through connective tissues cleaning up debris and attacking antigens.

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FIXED MACROPHAGES – define[a]These cells stay in the liver spleen lungs and CNS to clean up debris and attack invaders.

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Which type of cells cling to sinusoids in the liver and spleen and removed dust in the lungs?[a]FIXED MACROPHAGES

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Which type of cells travel through connective tissues cleaning up debris and attacking antigens?[a]WANDERING MACROPHAGES

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Which type of cells are very large PHAGOCYTIC immune cells (macrophages)?[a]MONOCYTE

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Which term describes the body’s ability to fight disease regardless of previous exposure?[a]Resistance

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Which term describes the body’s ability to recognize and fight against a re-infection of disease?[a]Immunity

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Which type of proteins are made by Plasma B cells to attack antigens?[a]Antibodies

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Which type of cells stay in the body for years and protect against repeated exposure to a given antigen?[a]Memory B and T cells

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Which type of cells attack abnormal body cells?[a]NATURAL KILLER CELLS

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Which type of cells produce antibodies to destroy or disable antigens?[a]B-LYMPHOCYTES

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Which type of cells attack antigens and infected body cells?[a]T-LYMPHOCYTES

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What is a foreign cell or molecule?[a]ANTIGENS

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Which type of cells are part of the IMMUNE system?[a]LYMPHOCYTE

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Which type of cells have no chemically filled granules, are born in red bone marrow & MATURE in lymphatic tissue?[a]AGRANULOCYTES

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Which type of cells ENHANCE inflammation?[a]BASOPHILS

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Which type of cells can become mast cells?[a]BASOPHILS

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Which type of cells reduce inflammation, eat antigen-antibody complexes as well as certain worms?[a]EOSINOPHILS

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Which type of cells compose 70% of the granulocytes?[a]NEUTROPHILS

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Which type of phagocytotic & mobile cells are the FIRST LINE OF DEFENSE against invading microbes?[a]NEUTROPHILS

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Which chemical enhances inflammation?[a]HISTAMINES

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Which type of cells contain histamine, heparin and serotonin?[a]BASOPHILS

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Which type of cells contain ANTIHISTAMINES?[a]EOSINOPHILS

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Which type of cells contain LYSOZYME to destroy bacteria and other cooties?[a]NEUTROPHILS

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Which type of WBC’s include: NEUTROPHILS, EOSINOPHILS, BASOPHILS?[a]GRANULOCYTES

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Which type of WBC’s have granules containing chemicals?[a]GRANULOCYTES

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Which term describes how WBC’s envelop a solid or a liquid?[a]PHAGOCYTOSIS & PINOCYTOSIS

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Which term describes how WBCs respond to CHEMICALS being given off by dying cells? (they act like blood hounds)[a]CHEMOTAXIS

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Which term describes how WBC’s swim through connective and interstitial tissues?[a]AMEBOID MOTION

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Which term describes the OOZING or SQUEEZING of fluid though blood vessel walls into interstitial spaces?[a]DIAPEDISIS

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In which structures are old blood cells broken down?[a]Sinusoids of the liver and spleen – function

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Which cells search for and destroy foreign invaders?[a]LEUKOCYTES

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Which blood condition can be caused by genes(sickle cell), diet, auto-immune disease, hemorrhage, radiation or chemotherapy?[a]ANEMIA

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Which term describes a lower than normal hematocrit?[a]ANEMIA

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Which term describes the percent of whole blood that is composed of RBC’s?[a]HEMATOCRIT

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Which term describes the production RBCs?[a]ERYTHROPOIESIS

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Thromboplastin is carried by[a]Platelets

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Hemostasis – define[a]This is the body’s ability to stop bleeding.

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Vascular Spasm – define[a]Vessel injury causes thrombocytes to release chemicals that cause vasoconstriction.

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Platelet plug formation – define[a]This process occurs when RBCs and platelets form a plug to fill up a hole in a vessel.

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Coagulation – define[a]This process is a series of chemical reactions resulting in a blood clot.

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Clot retraction – define[a]In this process platelets SHRINK and PULL the ends of the clot INWARD to make the original hole SMALLER.

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Thromboplastin – define[a]This enzyme turns prothrombin into THROMBIN.

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Thrombin – define[a]This enzyme turns fibrinogen into FIBRIN.

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A wad of fibrin and RBC’s make up what?[a]a blood clot

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Prothrombin & fibrinogen – produced by[a]These enzymes are made by the liver to promote clotting.

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Serum – define[a]This is blood plasma WITHOUT the clotting proteins FIBRINOGEN and PROTHROMBIN. It seeps through scabs.

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Thrombus – define[a]This is a stationary clot in an UNRUPTURED vessel.

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Embolis – define[a]This is a FREE FLOATING body in the bloodstream including clots, loose plaques or fat globules.

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Embolism – define[a]This is an embolus that gets stuck.

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Agglutinogens – define[a]These are markers on the RBC’s, denoted as A, B, or + for Rh.

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Agglutinins – define[a]These are the antibodies the body makes to fight off foreign blood types.

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List the markers on a Type A+ blood cell.[a]Agglutinogen A and the Rh factor.

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List the markers on a Type A- blood cell.[a]Agglutinogen A and not the Rh factor.

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List the markers on a Type B- blood cell.[a]Agglutinogen B and not the Rh factor.

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List the markers on a Type AB+ cell. [a]Agglutinogen A, B and the Rh factor.

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List the markers on a Type O+ blood cell.[a]Agglutinogen for the Rh factor only.

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List the markers on a Type O- blood cell.[a]There are no agglutinogens on O-.

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Type A+ recipient can receive blood from?[a]Type A+, A-, O+ and O- for transfusion.

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Type A- recipient can receive blood from?[a]Type A-, and O- for transfusion.

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Type B+ recipient can receive blood from?[a]Type B+, B-, O+ and O- for transfusion.

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Type O- recipient can receive blood from[a]Type O- only for transfusion.

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Type AB+ recipient can receive blood from[a]Type A+, A-, B+, B-, AB+, AB-, O+ and O- for transfusion. It is the universal recipient.

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Type AB- recipient can receive blood from[a]Type B-, A-, AB- and O- for transfusion.

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Type O- is known as[a]universal donor.

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Type AB+ is known as[a]universal recipient.

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Type O- can be given to[a]type AB+, AB-, A+, A-, B+, B-, O- and O+ for transfusion.

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An Rh- mother is dangerous to[a]To an Rh+ fetus if she has given birth to a Rh+ baby already.

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Which blood type in a mother might cause damage to a Rh+ fetus?[a]An Rh- mother

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Which blood type is acceptable to give to AB+, AB-, A+, A-, B+, B-, O- and O+ for transfusion?[a]Type O-

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Which blood type is known as is the universal recipient?[a]Type AB+

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Which blood type is known as the universal donor[a]Type O-

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Which blood type requires Donor to be type B-, A-, AB- and O- for transfusion?[a]Type AB-

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Which blood type requires Donor to be type A+, A-, B+, B-, AB+, AB-, O+ and O- for transfusion?[a]Type AB+

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Which blood type requires Donor to be type O- for transfusion?[a]Type O-

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Which blood type requires Donor to be type B+, B-, O+ and O- for transfusion?[a]Type B+

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Which blood type requires the donor to be type A-, and O- for transfusion?[a]Type A-

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Which blood type requires the donor to be type A+, A-, O+ and O- for transfusion?[a]Type A+

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Which blood type has no agglutinogens?[a]Type O blood cell.

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Which blood type has agglutinogen for the Rh factor only?[a]Type O+ blood cell.

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Which blood type has agglutinogen A, B and the Rh factor?[a]Type AB+ cell.

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Which blood type has agglutinogen B and not the Rh factor?[a]Type B- blood cell.

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Which blood type has agglutinogen A and not the Rh factor?[a]Type A- blood cell.

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Which blood type has agglutinogen A and the Rh factor?[a]Type A+ blood cell.

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Which terms describes the antibodies the body makes to fight off foreign blood types?[a]Agglutinins

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Which terms describes the markers on the RBC’s?[a]Agglutinogens

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Which terms describes an embolus that gets stuck?[a]Embolism

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Which terms describes FREE FLOATING bodies in blood including clots, loose plaque or fat globules?[a]Embolis

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Which term describes a stationary clot in an UNRUPTURED vessel?[a]Thrombus

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Which terms describes blood plasma WITHOUT the clotting proteins FIBRINOGEN and PROTHROMBIN? It seeps through scabs.[a]Serum

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Which enzymes does the liver make to promote clotting?[a]Prothrombin & fibrinogen

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What are blood clots made of?[a]A wad Fibrin and RBC’s.

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Which enzyme turns fibrinogen into FIBRIN?[a]Thrombin

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Which enzyme turns prothrombin into THROMBIN?[a]Thromboplastin

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In which process do platelets SHRINK, PULL the ends of the clot INWARD & make the original hole SMALLER?[a]Clot retraction

[q]

Which process is a series of chemical reactions resulting in a blood clot?[a]Coagulation

[q]

Which process occurs when RBCs and platelets form a plug to fill up a hole in a vessel?[a]Platelet plug formation

[q]

Which process occurs when vessel injury causes thrombocytes to release chemicals that cause vasoconstriction?[a]Vascular Spasm

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Which term describes the body’s ability to stop bleeding?[a]Hemostasis

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Which substance is contained in Platelets?[a]Thromboplastin

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