Blood Flashcards


Blood Deck 1

[qdeck]

[q]

HEMATOLOGY – define[a] This term describes the study of blood.

[q]

BLOOD – define[a]This term describes a liquid connective tissue composed of cells and fluid.

[q]

BLOOD – functions[a]TRANSPORTATION, REGULATION, PROTECTION inside the body.

[q]

Body temperature & pH are regulated by what tissue?[a]blood.

[q]

Plasma – percentage of blood[a] 55% of blood.

[q]

Blood cells – percentage of blood[a] 45% of blood.

[q]

7.35 – 7.45 That’s not lotto, but what is it?[a] This is the normal range of pH in blood.

[q]

Water – percentage of plasma[a]Water composes 91% of plasma.

[q]

Proteins – percentage of plasma[a] Proteins are 7% of plasma.

[q]

Solutes – percentage of plasma[a]Solutes are 2% of plasma.

[q]

Albumins, globulins & clotting proteins – define[a]These proteins are collectively known as plasma proteins.

[q]

ALBUMIN – function[a]This substances creates COLLOID OSMOTIC PRESSURE.

[q]

GLOBULINS – function[a]These plasma proteins fight antigens.

[q]

CLOTTING PROTEINS – list[a] PROTHROMBIN and FIBRINOGEN.

[q]

Hemostasis – define[a]This term describes blood clotting.

[q]

Suspension – define[a]This is how blood cells are carried in the bloodstream.

[q]

Solutes – define[a]Materials dissolved in blood plasma.

[q]

What cell lives about 120 days?[a] RBCs.

[q]

How fast are RBC’s produced?[a] 2 million/sec- rate of cell production/destruction.

[q]

THROMBOCYTES aka[a]platelets.

[q]

LEUKOCYTES – aka[a]WBC’s

[q]

ERYTHROCYTES – aka[a] red blood cells

[q]

ERYTHROCYTES – describe[a]Very small, non nucleated cells filled with hemoglobin.

[q]

HEMOGLOBIN – define[a]an oxygen carryting protein molecule with 4 atoms of iron embedded in it.

[q]

HEMOPOIESIS – define[a]This term describes blood cell production.

[q]

Red bone marrow – function[a]This tissue is the site of HEMOPOIESIS.

[q]

Yellow bone marrow – function[a]In this type of marrow fat is stored.

[q]

MYELOID TISSUE – define[a]This term describes bone marrow.

[q]

LYMPHOID TISSUES – list[a] marrow, thymus, spleen, tonsils, lymph nodes and lymph vessels.

[q]

VASCULAR SPASM – define[a]This term describes how blood vessel injury causes constriction.

[/qdeck]

Blood Deck 1 Reversed

[qdeck]

[q]

Which term describes the study of blood?[a]HEMATOLOGY

[q]

Which term describes a liquid connective tissue composed of cells and fluid?[a]BLOOD

[q]

Which substances are carried in blood?[a]Oxygen, carbon dioxide, glucose, amino acids, fatty acids, Ca++, Na+, K+, water, uric acid, ammonia & urea

[q]

Which homeostatic systems are regulated by blood?[a]Body temperature & pH

[q]

Which substance composes 55% of blood?[a]Plasma

[q]

Which substance composes 45% of blood?[a]Blood cells

[q]

What is the normal range of pH in blood?[a]7.35 – 7.45

[q]

Which substance composes 91% of plasma?[a]Water

[q]

Which substances make up 7% of plasma?[a]Proteins

[q]

Which substances make ups 2% of plasma?[a]Solutes

[q]

Which solutes are carried in blood?[a]ELECTROLYTES, NUTRIENTS, GASES, WASTES, HORMONES, ENZYMES & VITAMINS

[q]

Which proteins are collectively known as plasma proteins?[a]Albumins, globulins & clotting proteins

[q]

Which substances creates COLLOID OSMOTIC PRESSURE?[a]ALBUMINS

[q]

Which plasma proteins fight antigens?[a]GLOBULINS

[q]

What are PROTHROMBIN and FIBRINOGEN?[a]CLOTTING PROTEINS

[q]

Which term describes blood clotting?[a]Hemostasis

[q]

How are blood cells carried in blood?[a]Suspension

[q]

What is dissolved in blood?[a]Solutes

[q]

How many RBC are there in 1 mm of blood?[a]5 million/mm

[q]

How many WBC are there in 1 mm of blood?[a]5000 to 9000/mm

[q]

How many Platelets are there in 1 mm of blood?[a]150000 – 350000 per cubic mm

[q]

What is the lifespan of RBCs?[a]120 days

[q]

What is the lifespan of WBCs?[a]Variable lifespan, hours to years

[q]

How quickly are RBC produced and destroyed?[a]2 million/sec- rate of cell production/destruction.

[q]

Which term describes platelets?[a]THROMBOCYTES

[q]

White blood cells aka[a]LEUKOCYTES

[q]

red blood cells aka[a]ERYTHROCYTES

[q]

Which cells are very small, non nucleated, and filled with hemoglobin?[a]ERYTHROCYTES

[q]

Which structure consists of a protein molecule with 4 atoms of iron embedded in it?[a]HEMOGLOBIN

[q]

Which term describes blood cell production?[a]HEMOPOIESIS

[q]

Which tissue is the site of HEMOPOIESIS[a]Red bone marrow

[q]

In which type of marrow is fat stored?[a]Yellow bone marrow

[q]

Which term describes bone marrow?[a]MYELOID TISSUE

[q]

Which term describes how blood vessel injury causes constriction?[a]VASCULAR SPASM

[/qdeck]

Blood Deck 2

[qdeck]

[q]

RBCs – shape[a]These cells have a small biconcave shape.

[q]

RBCs – function[a]These Cells takes care of gas transport and exchange.

[q]

ERYTHROPOIESIS – define[a]production of RBCs

[q]

HEMATOCRIT – define[a]This is the percent of whole blood that is composed of RBC’s.

[q]

ANEMIA – define[a]This is a lower than normal hematocrit.

[q]

What are the causes of ANEMIA?[a]Caused by genes(sickle cell) diet auto-immune disease hemorrhage radiation or chemotherapy.

[q]

LEUKOCYTES – function[a]These cells search for and destroy foreign invaders.

[q]

Sinusoids of the liver and spleen – function[a]This is where old blood cells are broken down?

[q]

DIAPEDISIS – define[a]This is the OOZING or SQUEEZING of fluid though blood vessel walls into interstitial spaces.

[q]

AMEBOID MOTION – define[a]This is how WBC’s swim through connective and interstitial tissues.

[q]

CHEMOTAXIS – define[a]This is how WBCs respond to CHEMICALS being given off by dying cells. (they act like blood hounds)

[q]

PHAGOCYTOSIS & PINOCYTOSIS – define[a]This is how WBC’s envelop a solid or a liquid.

[q]

GRANULOCYTES – describe[a]These WBC’s have granules containing chemicals.

[q]

GRANULOCYTES – list[a]NEUTROPHILS EOSINOPHILS BASOPHILS.

[q]

NEUTROPHILS contain what chemical in their granules?[a]LYSOZYME to destroy bacteria and other cooties.

[q]

EOSINOPHILS contain what chemical in their granules?[a]Which type of cells contain ANTIHISTAMINES?

[q]

BASOPHILS contain what chemical in their granules?[a]Which type of cells contain histamine heparin and serotonin?

[q]

HISTAMINES – function[a]These enhances inflammation.

[q]

NEUTROPHILS – function[a]These phagocytotic & mobile cells are the FIRST LINE OF DEFENSE against invading microbes.

[q]

NEUTROPHILS are what percentage of WBC’s?[a]70%

[q]

EOSINOPHILS – function[a]These cells reduce inflammation eat antigen-antibody complexes as well as certain worms.

[q]

BASOPHILS – function[a]These cells enhance inflammation and can become mast cells.

[q]

AGRANULOCYTES – describe[a]These cells have no chemically filled granules.

[q]

LYMPHOCYTES – define[a]These cells are part of the IMMUNE system are created in red bone marrow & MATURE in lymphatic tissue.

[q]

ANTIGENS – define[a]This is a foreign cell or molecule triggering the generation of antibodies.

[q]

T-LYMPHOCYTES – function[a]These cells attack antigens and infected body cells

[q]

B-LYMPHOCYTES – function[a]These cells produce antibodies to destroy or disable antigens.

[q]

NATURAL KILLER CELLS – function[a]These cells attack abnormal body cells.

[q]

Memory B and T cells – lifespan/function[a]Which type of cells stay in the body for years and protect against repeated exposure to a given antigen.

[q]

Antibodies – define[a]These proteins are made by Plasma B cells to attack antigens.

[q]

Immunity – define[a]This is the body’s ability to recognize and fight against a re-infection of disease.

[q]

Resistance – define[a]This is the body’s ability to fight disease regardless of previous exposure.

[q]

MONOCYTES – define[a]THESE cells are very large PHAGOCYTIC immune cells (macrophages).

[q]

WANDERING MACROPHAGES – define[a]These cells travel through connective tissues cleaning up debris and attacking antigens.

[q]

FIXED MACROPHAGES – define[a]These cells stay in the liver spleen lungs and CNS to clean up debris and attack invaders.

[/qdeck]

Blood Deck 2 Reversed

[qdeck]

[q]

Which type of cells cling to sinusoids in the liver and spleen and removed dust in the lungs?[a]FIXED MACROPHAGES

[q]

Which type of cells travel through connective tissues cleaning up debris and attacking antigens?[a]WANDERING MACROPHAGES

[q]

Which type of cells are very large PHAGOCYTIC immune cells (macrophages)?[a]MONOCYTE

[q]

Which term describes the body’s ability to fight disease regardless of previous exposure?[a]Resistance

[q]

Which term describes the body’s ability to recognize and fight against a re-infection of disease?[a]Immunity

[q]

Which type of proteins are made by Plasma B cells to attack antigens?[a]Antibodies

[q]

Which type of cells stay in the body for years and protect against repeated exposure to a given antigen?[a]Memory B and T cells

[q]

Which type of cells attack abnormal body cells?[a]NATURAL KILLER CELLS

[q]

Which type of cells produce antibodies to destroy or disable antigens?[a]B-LYMPHOCYTES

[q]

Which type of cells attack antigens and infected body cells?[a]T-LYMPHOCYTES

[q]

What is a foreign cell or molecule?[a]ANTIGENS

[q]

Which type of cells are part of the IMMUNE system?[a]LYMPHOCYTE

[q]

Which type of cells have no chemically filled granules, are born in red bone marrow & MATURE in lymphatic tissue?[a]AGRANULOCYTES

[q]

Which type of cells ENHANCE inflammation?[a]BASOPHILS

[q]

Which type of cells can become mast cells?[a]BASOPHILS

[q]

Which type of cells reduce inflammation, eat antigen-antibody complexes as well as certain worms?[a]EOSINOPHILS

[q]

Which type of cells compose 70% of the granulocytes?[a]NEUTROPHILS

[q]

Which type of phagocytotic & mobile cells are the FIRST LINE OF DEFENSE against invading microbes?[a]NEUTROPHILS

[q]

Which chemical enhances inflammation?[a]HISTAMINES

[q]

Which type of cells contain histamine, heparin and serotonin?[a]BASOPHILS

[q]

Which type of cells contain ANTIHISTAMINES?[a]EOSINOPHILS

[q]

Which type of cells contain LYSOZYME to destroy bacteria and other cooties?[a]NEUTROPHILS

[q]

Which type of WBC’s include: NEUTROPHILS, EOSINOPHILS, BASOPHILS?[a]GRANULOCYTES

[q]

Which type of WBC’s have granules containing chemicals?[a]GRANULOCYTES

[q]

Which term describes how WBC’s envelop a solid or a liquid?[a]PHAGOCYTOSIS & PINOCYTOSIS

[q]

Which term describes how WBCs respond to CHEMICALS being given off by dying cells? (they act like blood hounds)[a]CHEMOTAXIS

[q]

Which term describes how WBC’s swim through connective and interstitial tissues?[a]AMEBOID MOTION

[q]

Which term describes the OOZING or SQUEEZING of fluid though blood vessel walls into interstitial spaces?[a]DIAPEDISIS

[q]

In which structures are old blood cells broken down?[a]Sinusoids of the liver and spleen – function

[q]

Which cells search for and destroy foreign invaders?[a]LEUKOCYTES

[q]

Which blood condition can be caused by genes(sickle cell), diet, auto-immune disease, hemorrhage, radiation or chemotherapy?[a]ANEMIA

[q]

Which term describes a lower than normal hematocrit?[a]ANEMIA

[q]

Which term describes the percent of whole blood that is composed of RBC’s?[a]HEMATOCRIT

[q]

Which term describes the production RBCs?[a]ERYTHROPOIESIS

[/qdeck]

Blood Deck 3

[qdeck]

[q]

Thromboplastin is carried by[a]Platelets

[q]

Hemostasis – define[a]This is the body’s ability to stop bleeding.

[q]

Vascular Spasm – define[a]Vessel injury causes thrombocytes to release chemicals that cause vasoconstriction.

[q]

Platelet plug formation – define[a]This process occurs when RBCs and platelets form a plug to fill up a hole in a vessel.

[q]

Coagulation – define[a]This process is a series of chemical reactions resulting in a blood clot.

[q]

Clot retraction – define[a]In this process platelets SHRINK and PULL the ends of the clot INWARD to make the original hole SMALLER.

[q]

Thromboplastin – define[a]This enzyme turns prothrombin into THROMBIN.

[q]

Thrombin – define[a]This enzyme turns fibrinogen into FIBRIN.

[q]

A wad of fibrin and RBC’s make up what?[a]a blood clot

[q]

Prothrombin & fibrinogen – produced by[a]These enzymes are made by the liver to promote clotting.

[q]

Serum – define[a]This is blood plasma WITHOUT the clotting proteins FIBRINOGEN and PROTHROMBIN. It seeps through scabs.

[q]

Thrombus – define[a]This is a stationary clot in an UNRUPTURED vessel.

[q]

Embolis – define[a]This is a FREE FLOATING body in the bloodstream including clots, loose plaques or fat globules.

[q]

Embolism – define[a]This is an embolus that gets stuck.

[q]

Agglutinogens – define[a]These are markers on the RBC’s, denoted as A, B, or + for Rh.

[q]

Agglutinins – define[a]These are the antibodies the body makes to fight off foreign blood types.

[q]

List the markers on a Type A+ blood cell.[a]Agglutinogen A and the Rh factor.

[q]

List the markers on a Type A- blood cell.[a]Agglutinogen A and not the Rh factor.

[q]

List the markers on a Type B- blood cell.[a]Agglutinogen B and not the Rh factor.

[q]

List the markers on a Type AB+ cell. [a]Agglutinogen A, B and the Rh factor.

[q]

List the markers on a Type O+ blood cell.[a]Agglutinogen for the Rh factor only.

[q]

List the markers on a Type O- blood cell.[a]There are no agglutinogens on O-.

[q]

Type A+ recipient can receive blood from?[a]Type A+, A-, O+ and O- for transfusion.

[q]

Type A- recipient can receive blood from?[a]Type A-, and O- for transfusion.

[q]

Type B+ recipient can receive blood from?[a]Type B+, B-, O+ and O- for transfusion.

[q]

Type O- recipient can receive blood from[a]Type O- only for transfusion.

[q]

Type AB+ recipient can receive blood from[a]Type A+, A-, B+, B-, AB+, AB-, O+ and O- for transfusion. It is the universal recipient.

[q]

Type AB- recipient can receive blood from[a]Type B-, A-, AB- and O- for transfusion.

[q]

Type O- is known as[a]universal donor.

[q]

Type AB+ is known as[a]universal recipient.

[q]

Type O- can be given to[a]type AB+, AB-, A+, A-, B+, B-, O- and O+ for transfusion.

[q]

An Rh- mother is dangerous to[a]To an Rh+ fetus if she has given birth to a Rh+ baby already.

[/qdeck]

Blood Deck 3 Reversed

[qdeck]

[q]

Which blood type in a mother might cause damage to a Rh+ fetus?[a]An Rh- mother

[q]

Which blood type is acceptable to give to AB+, AB-, A+, A-, B+, B-, O- and O+ for transfusion?[a]Type O-

[q]

Which blood type is known as is the universal recipient?[a]Type AB+

[q]

Which blood type is known as the universal donor[a]Type O-

[q]

Which blood type requires Donor to be type B-, A-, AB- and O- for transfusion?[a]Type AB-

[q]

Which blood type requires Donor to be type A+, A-, B+, B-, AB+, AB-, O+ and O- for transfusion?[a]Type AB+

[q]

Which blood type requires Donor to be type O- for transfusion?[a]Type O-

[q]

Which blood type requires Donor to be type B+, B-, O+ and O- for transfusion?[a]Type B+

[q]

Which blood type requires the donor to be type A-, and O- for transfusion?[a]Type A-

[q]

Which blood type requires the donor to be type A+, A-, O+ and O- for transfusion?[a]Type A+

[q]

Which blood type has no agglutinogens?[a]Type O blood cell.

[q]

Which blood type has agglutinogen for the Rh factor only?[a]Type O+ blood cell.

[q]

Which blood type has agglutinogen A, B and the Rh factor?[a]Type AB+ cell.

[q]

Which blood type has agglutinogen B and not the Rh factor?[a]Type B- blood cell.

[q]

Which blood type has agglutinogen A and not the Rh factor?[a]Type A- blood cell.

[q]

Which blood type has agglutinogen A and the Rh factor?[a]Type A+ blood cell.

[q]

Which terms describes the antibodies the body makes to fight off foreign blood types?[a]Agglutinins

[q]

Which terms describes the markers on the RBC’s?[a]Agglutinogens

[q]

Which terms describes an embolus that gets stuck?[a]Embolism

[q]

Which terms describes FREE FLOATING bodies in blood including clots, loose plaque or fat globules?[a]Embolis

[q]

Which term describes a stationary clot in an UNRUPTURED vessel?[a]Thrombus

[q]

Which terms describes blood plasma WITHOUT the clotting proteins FIBRINOGEN and PROTHROMBIN? It seeps through scabs.[a]Serum

[q]

Which enzymes does the liver make to promote clotting?[a]Prothrombin & fibrinogen

[q]

What are blood clots made of?[a]A wad Fibrin and RBC’s.

[q]

Which enzyme turns fibrinogen into FIBRIN?[a]Thrombin

[q]

Which enzyme turns prothrombin into THROMBIN?[a]Thromboplastin

[q]

In which process do platelets SHRINK, PULL the ends of the clot INWARD & make the original hole SMALLER?[a]Clot retraction

[q]

Which process is a series of chemical reactions resulting in a blood clot?[a]Coagulation

[q]

Which process occurs when RBCs and platelets form a plug to fill up a hole in a vessel?[a]Platelet plug formation

[q]

Which process occurs when vessel injury causes thrombocytes to release chemicals that cause vasoconstriction?[a]Vascular Spasm

[q]

Which term describes the body’s ability to stop bleeding?[a]Hemostasis

[q]

Which substance is contained in Platelets?[a]Thromboplastin

[/qdeck]

Reproduction System Flashcards

Reproductive deck

[qdeck]

[q]

Meiosis – define[a]This process forms the creation of a haploid cell (gamete) containing 23 chromosomes.

[q]

Mitosis – define[a]This process forms the creation of a diploid cell (body cell) containing 46 chromosomes.

[q]

Ovum – define[a]This term describes the female gamete.

[q]

Sperm – define[a]This term describes the male gamete.

[q]

Male sex organs – list structures[a]testes, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra & penis.

[q]

Male accessory sex glands – list[a]seminal vesicle, prostate & Cowper’s gland

[q]

Testes – define[a]This term describes the male gonads.

[q]

Spermatogenesis & production of testosterone occurs where?[a] testes.

[q]

Seminiferous tubules – function[a]In this structure sperm are produced.

[q]

Sperm mature & learn to swim – where[a]epididymis.

[q]

Vas deferens – define[a]This is the structure are where sperm are stored and moved from the tesetes to the ejaculatory duct.

[q]

Prostate gland – Pathology[a]This gland can become enlarged causing difficulty in urination.

[q]

Seminal vesicles, prostate & Cowper’s gland – function[a]These glands make additional fluid to complete formation of semen.

[q]

Oogenesis – define[a]This term describes the maturation of oocytes/ova.

[q]

Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) -function[a]This hormone stimulates maturation of ovum within follicle & releases estrogen.

[q]

Lutenizing Hormone (LT) – function[a]This hormone stimulates ovulation & creation of corpus luteum.

[q]

Corpus luteum – function[a]This structure makes progesterone and estrogen.

[q]

Progesterone – function[a]This hormone causes buildup of the endometrium & breast tissue.

[q]

Fallopian tube – function[a]Through this structure does the ovum travel to the uterus.

[q]

Zygote – define[a]This term describes a fertilized egg.

[q]

Endometrium – define[a]This structure provides nourishment to the placenta.

[q]

Fimbriae – define[a]This structure guides the ovum to the fallopian tube.

[q]

Female reproductive organs – list[a]ovary, fimbriae, fallopian tube, uterus, cervix & vagina.

[q]

Fertilization – define[a]This process occurs when ovum and sperm join together to form a zygote.

[q]

What goes on in the Fallopian tube?[a]hanky panky (fertilization)

[/qdeck]

Reproductive deck reversed

[qdeck]

[q]

Which process forms the creation of a haploid cell (gamete) containing 23 chromosomes?[a]Meiosis

[q]

Which process forms the creation of a diploid cell (body cell) containing 46 chromosomes?[a]Mitosis

[q]

Which term describes the female gamete?[a]Ovum

[q]

Which term describes the male gamete?[a]Sperm

[q]

Which type of organs include: seminal vesicle, prostate & Cowper’s gland?[a]Male accessory sex glands

[q]

What is the name for the male gonads?[a]Testes

[q]

Describe the functions of testes.[a]Spermatogenesis & production of testosterone

[q]

In which structures are sperm produced?[a]Seminiferous tubules

[q]

Which processes do sperm undergo in the epididymis?[a]Sperm mature & learn to swim

[q]

In which structure are sperm stored and moved?[a]Vas deferens

[q]

Which gland can become enlarged causing difficulty in urination?[a]Prostate gland

[q]

Which glands make additional fluid to complete formation of semen?[a]Seminal vesicles, prostate & Cowper’s gland

[q]

Which term describes the maturation of oocytes/ova?[a]Oogenesis

[q]

Which hormone stimulates maturation of ovum within follicle & releases estrogen?[a]Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

[q]

Which hormone stimulates ovulation & creation of corpus luteum?[a]Lutenizing Hormone (LT)

[q]

Which structure stimulates production of progesterone?[a]Corpus luteum

[q]

Which hormone causes buildup of the endometrium & breast tissue?[a]Progesterone

[q]

Through which structure does the ovum travel to the uterus?[a]Fallopian tube

[q]

Which term describes a fertilized egg?[a]Zygote

[q]

Which structure provides nourishment to the placenta?[a]Endometrium

[q]

Which structure guides the ovum to the fallopian tube?[a]Fimbriae

[q]

Which type of organs are these: ovary, fimbriae, fallopian tube, uterus, cervix & vagina?[a]Female reproductive organs

[q]

What is the event where the ovum and sperm join together to form a zygote?[a]Fertilization

[q]

In which stucture does fertilization occur?[a] Fallopian tube.

[/qdeck]

Heart Flashcards

Heart 1

[qdeck]

[q]

What is in the Mediastinum?[a]heart

[q]

Right side of the heart – function[a]This side of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the body and pumps it to the lungs.

[q]

Left side of the heart – function[a]This side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it to the body.

[q]

Pericardium contains what?[a]the heart.

[q]

Epicardium – aka[a]visceral pericardium.

[q]

Outermost layer of pericardium is the?[a]fibrous percardium.

[q]

Parietal pericardium – define[a]This structure composes the inner layer of fibrous pericardium, a serous membrane that secretes lubricating fluid into Pericardial cavity.

[q]

Visceral pericardium – define[a]This structure is a serous membrane and composes the outermost layer of the heart wall.

[q]

What organ is in the pericardial cavity?[a]the heart.

[q]

Myocardium – composition[a]This structure is composed of cardiac myocytes and forms the bulk of the heart.

[q]

Endocardium – composition[a]This structure is composed of endothelial cells (squamous epithelium) and lines the inner chambers of the heart

[q]

Pericardium & Heart Wall – list layers superficial to deep.[a]1.Fibrous pericardium, 2.Parietal pericardium, 3.Pericardial space, 4.Visceral pericardium/Epicardium, 5.Myocardium, 6.Endocardium

[q]

Pericardium – function[a]This structure reduces friction against surrounding structures as heart expands and contracts.

[q]

Atria – function[a]These chambers receive blood from the body.

[q]

Ventricles – function[a]These chambers pump blood out of the heart.

[q]

Right atrium – function[a]This chamber receives deoxygenated blood from systemic circulation.

[q]

Left atrium – function[a]This chamber receives oxygenated blood from pulmonary circulation.

[q]

Right ventricle – function[a]This chamber receives blood from the right atrium and pumps it to the lungs.

[q]

Left ventricle – function[a]This chamber receives blood from the left atrium and pumps it to the body.

[q]

Pulmonary Circuit – define[a]This circuit carries the flow of blood from the heart through the lungs, where deoxygenated blood receives O2 and discards CO2.

[q]

Systemic Circuit – define[a]This circuit carries the flow of blood from the heart through the rest of the tissues in the body and back again.

[q]

Superior Vena Cava (SVC), Inferior Vena Cava (IVC) and Coronary Sinus – drain blood into the…[a]right atrium.

[q]

2 right and 2 left pulmonary veins drain blood into…[a]the left atrium.

[q]

Pulmonary trunk caries blood out of…[a]the right ventricle.

[q]

Aorta caries blood out of…[a]the left ventricle.

[q]

Pulmonary Circuit – route[a]Blood flows from the heart to pulmonary trunk to pulmonary arteries to lungs to pulmonary veins to heart.

[q]

Systemic Circuit – route[a]Blood that flows from the heart to aorta to the whole body to SVC, IVC, or coronary sinus to heart.

[q]

The right side of the heart contains what kind of blood?[a]deoxygenated blood

[q]

The left side of the heart contains what kind of blood?[a]oxygenated blood

[q]

The SVC and IVC contain what kind of blood?[a]deoxygenated blood

[q]

Aorta – contains what kind of blood?[a]oxygenated blood.

[q]

Pulmonary veins carry what kind of blood?[a]oxygenated blood

[q]

Pulmonary arteries carry what kind of blood?[a]deoxygenated blood.

[q]

Heart valves – function[a]These structures prevent blood from flowing backwards by closing if blood flows the wrong way.

[q]

Semilunar valves – function[a]These valves prevent backflow into the ventricles.

[q]

Atrioventrivular valves – function[a]These valves prevent backflow into the atria.

[q]

Mitral valve aka[a]Bicuspid valve aka

[q]

Right atrioventricular valve aka[a]Tricuspid valve aka

[/qdeck]

Heart 1 reversed

[qdeck]

[q]

Tricuspid valve aka[a]Right atrioventricular valve

[q]

Bicuspid valve aka[a]Mitral valve

[q]

Which valves prevent backflow into the atria?[a]Atrioventrivular valves

[q]

Which valves prevent backflow into the ventricles?[a]Semilunar valves

[q]

Which structures prevent blood from flowing backwards by closing if blood flows the wrong way?[a]Heart valves

[q]

Which blood vessels carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs?[a]Pulmonary arteries

[q]

Which blood vessels carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?[a]Pulmonary veins

[q]

Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood away from the heart?[a]Aorta

[q]

Which blood vessels carry deoxygenated blood to the heart?[a]The SVC and IVC

[q]

On which side of the heart is oxygenated blood located?[a]The left side

[q]

On which side of the heart is deoxygenated blood located?[a]The right side

[q]

Blood that flows from the heart to aorta to the whole body to SVC, IVC, or coronary sinus to heart describes which circuit?[a]Systemic Circuit

[q]

Blood that flows from the heart to pulmonary trunk to pulmonary arteries to lungs to pulmonary veins to heart describes which circuit?[a]Pulmonary Circuit

[q]

Which vessel caries blood out of the left ventricle?[a]Aorta

[q]

Which vessels carries blood out of the right ventricle?[a]Pulmonary trunk

[q]

Which vessels carry blood into the left atrium?[a]2 right and 2 left pulmonary veins

[q]

Which vessels carry blood into the right atrium?[a]Superior Vena Cava (SVC), Inferior Vena Cava (IVC) and Coronary Sinus

[q]

Which circuit carries the flow of blood from the heart through the rest of the tissues in the body and back again?[a]Systemic Circuit

[q]

Which circuit carries the flow of blood from the heart through the lungs, where deoxygenated blood receives O2 and discards CO2?[a]Pulmonary Circuit

[q]

Which chamber receives blood from the left atrium and pumps it to the body?[a]Left ventricle

[q]

Which chamber receives blood from the right atrium and pumps it to the lungs?[a]Right ventricle

[q]

Which chamber receives oxygenated blood from pulmonary circulation?[a]Left atrium

[q]

Which chamber receives deoxygenated blood from systemic circulation?[a]Right atrium

[q]

Which chambers pump blood out of the heart?[a]Ventricles

[q]

Which chambers receive blood from the body?[a]Atria

[q]

Which structure reduces friction against surrounding structures as heart expands and contracts?[a]Pericardium

[q]

Which structure composed of endothelial cells (squamous epithelium) lines the inner chambers of the heart?[a]Endocardium

[q]

Which structure is composed of cardiac myocytes and forms bulk of the heart?[a]Myocardium

[q]

Which cavity encloses the heart?[a]pericardial cavity

[q]

Which structure is a serous membrane and composes the outermost layer of the heart wall?[a]Visceral pericardium

[q]

Which structure makes up the outer layer of the serous pericardium, a serous membrane that secretes lubricating fluid into Pericardial cavity?[a]Parietal pericardium

[q]

Which layer does the fibrous percardium form?[a]Outermost layer of pericardium

[q]

visceral pericardium aka[a]Epicardium

[q]

Which structure contains the heart?[a]Pericardium

[q]

Which side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it to the body?[a]Left side of the heart

[q]

Which side of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the body and pumps it to the lungs?[a]Right side of the heart

[q]

Where is the heart located?[a]Mediastinum

[/qdeck]

Heart 2

[qdeck]

[q]

Semilunar valves have how many flaps?[a]3 flaps

[q]

Papillary muscles – function[a]These heart structures prevent valvular prolapse.

[q]

What contracts during ventricular systole besides the ventricles?[a]papillary muscles

[q]

Chordae tendonae – location[a]in the ventricles between the papillary muscles and the leaves of the valves

[q]

Valvular insufficiency – define[a]a heart murmur or valvular prolapse where valves do not close completely.

[q]

Valvular stenosis – define[a]A condition where valves don’t open completely.

[q]

“Lub” sound – define[a]Sound caused by the closing of the AV valves.

[q]

“Dup” sound – define[a]Sound caused by the closing of the semilunar valves.

[q]

Systole – define[a]This is the contraction of a heart chamber.

[q]

Diastole – define[a]the relaxation of a heart chamber.

[q]

“Lub” sound – occurs during what stage of a heart beat?[a]Beginning of ventricular systole.

[q]

“Dup” sound – occurs during what stage of a heart beat?[a]Beginning of ventricular diastole.

[q]

Myocyte – define[a]a heart cell.

[q]

Functional syncytium – define[a]all myocytes contract together.

[q]

Myogenic – define[a]a self stimulating cell

[q]

The Cardiac Conduction System – define[a]A system composed of nodal tissue that causes the heart to beat.

[q]

Sinoatrial Node (SA Node) – location[a]upper wall of right atrium

[q]

Atrioventricular Node (AV Node) – location[a]floor of right atrium or at the base of the interatrial septum

[q]

Atrioventricular Node (AV Node) – function[a]receives the action potential from the SA node

[q]

Sinoatrial Node (SA Node) – function[a]Generates the sinus rhythm considered to be the basic heart rate

[q]

Cardiac skeleton – define[a]This is the fibrous CT which supports myocardium, forms a thick insulating wall between atria and ventricles, and keeps ventricles from contracting prematurely.

[q]

Atrioventricular bundle – aka[a]Bundle of His.

[q]

Bundle of His – define[a]This structure carries the action potential across cardiac skeleton into interventricular septum & splits into Left/Right Bundle branches.

[q]

Purkinje fibers – define[a]These heart fibers carry action potential from the apex of the heart to the myocardium causing the ventricles to contract.

[q]

Vagus nerve – effect on heart rate[a]decreases heart rate via the Parasympathetic NS.

[q]

Cardiac nerve – effect on heart rate[a]increases heart rate via the Sympathetic NS.

[q]

Sino – atrial (SA) node – rhythm[a]72 beats per minute (BPM).

[q]

Cardiac cycle – define[a]This cycle is composed of Atrial systole and diastole & Ventricular systole and diastole.

[q]

If the heart is beating 72 times a minute, what part of the beat would be .1 sec long?[a]atrial systole

[q]

If the heart is beating 72 times a minute, what part of the beat would be .3 sec long?[a]ventricular systole

[q]

If the heart is beating 72 times a minute, what part of the beat would be .7 sec long?[a]atrial diastole

[q]

If the heart is beating 72 times a minute, what part of the beat would be .5 sec long?[a]ventricular diastole

[q]

If the heart is beating 72 times a minute, what part of the beat would be .8 sec long?[a]The whole cardiac cycle.

[q]

Atrial systole – define[a]This is the first part of a heart beat.

[q]

Cardiac Output (CO) – define[a]This is the amount of blood pumped out the left ventricle per minute.

[q]

Stroke Rate (SR) – define[a]number of beats per minute.

[q]

Stroke Volume (SV) – define[a]the amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle per beat.

[q]

What is this equation? SR x SV = CO[a]the equation for Cardiac Output.

[/qdeck]

Heart 2 reversed

[qdeck]

[q]

What is the equation for Cardiac Output?[a]SR x SV = CO

[q]

Which term describes the amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle per beat?[a]Stroke Volume (SV)

[q]

Which term describes the number of beats per minute?[a]Stroke Rate (SR)

[q]

Which term describes the amount of blood pumped out the left ventricle per minute?[a]Cardiac Output (CO)

[q]

What is the first part of a heart beat?[a]Atrial systole

[q]

What is the duration of the full cardiac cycle with a heart rate of 72 BPM?[a].8 sec long

[q]

What is the duration of ventricular diastole with a heart rate of 72 BPM?[a].5 sec long

[q]

What is the duration of atrial diastole with a heart rate of 72 BPM?[a].7 sec long

[q]

What is the duration of ventricular systole with a heart rate of 72 BPM? [a].3 sec long

[q]

What is the duration of atrial systole with a heart rate of 72 BPM?[a].1 sec

[q]

Which cycle is composed of Atrial systole, diastole & Ventricular systole, diastole? [a]Cardiac cycle

[q]

Which heart structure has a rhythm of 72 beats per minute (BPM)?[a]Sino atrial node

[q]

Which nerve increases heart rate via the Sympathetic NS?[a]Cardiac nerve

[q]

Which nerve decreases heart rate via the Parasympathetic NS?[a]Vagus nerve

[q]

Which heart fibers carry action potential from the apex of the heart to the myocardium causing the ventricles to contract?[a]Purkinje fibers

[q]

Which structure carries the action potential across cardiac skeleton into interventricular septum & splits into Left/Right Bundle branches?[a]Bundle of His

[q]

Which is another term for the Bundle of His?[a]Atrioventricular bundle

[q]

Which term describes the fibrous CT which supports myocardium, forms a thick insulating wall between atria and ventricles and keeps ventricles from contracting prematurely?[a]Cardiac skeleton

[q]

Which node generates the sinus rhythm considered to be the basic heart rate?[a]Sinoatrial Node (SA Node)

[q]

Which conduction node receives the action potential from the SA node?[a]Atrioventricular Node (AV Node)

[q]

Which conduction node is located in floor of right atrium or at the base of the interatrial septum?[a]Atrioventricular Node (AV Node)

[q]

Which conduction node is located in the wall of the right atrium?[a]Sinoatrial Node (SA Node)

[q]

Which system causes the heart to beat?[a]The Cardiac Conduction System

[q]

What is the term for a self stimulating cell?[a]Myogenic

[q]

What term describes when all myocytes contract together?[a]Functional syncytium

[q]

What is the name of a heart cell?[a]Myocyte

[q]

Which heart sound do you hear at the beginning of ventricular diastole?[a]”Dup” sound

[q]

Which heart sound do you hear at the beginning of ventricular systole?[a]”Lub” sound

[q]

Which term describes the relaxation of a heart chamber?[a]Diastole

[q]

Which term describes the contraction of a heart chamber?[a]Systole

[q]

Which sound is caused by the closing of the semilunar valves?[a]”Dup” sound

[q]

Which sound is caused by the closing of the AV valves?[a]”Lub” sound

[q]

Which term describes a condition where valves don’t open completely?[a]Valvular stenosis

[q]

Which term describes a heart murmur or valvular prolapse?[a]Valvular insufficiency

[q]

Which heart structures are located in the ventricles?[a]Chordae tendonae and paillary muscles

[q]

When do the papillary muscles contract?[a]ventricular systole

[q]

Which heart structures prevents valvular prolapse?[a]Papillary muscles and chordae tendonae

[q]

Which valves have 3 flaps?[a]Semilunar valves, and the tricuspid.

[/qdeck]

Heart 3

[qdeck]

[q]

Preload – define[a]This is the amount of blood filling the heart before systole.

[q]

Afterload – define[a]This is the amount of pressure exerted by arterial blood, which must be overcome by left ventricle to force more blood into the aorta.

[q]

Factors Affecting Stroke Volume – list[a]preload, venous return and afterload

[q]

Positive Inotropic Agents – define[a]These chemical agents strengthen the contractile power of the heart

[q]

Negative Inotropic Agents – define[a]These chemical agents weaken the contractile power of the heart

[q]

Positive Inotropic Agents – list[a]epinephrine, NE, glucagon, thyroid hormone, dopamine & digitalis

[q]

Negative Inotropic Agents – list[a]Anoxia (oxygen deprivation) Acidosis, Excess extracellular potassium, Ca++ channel blockers, beta blockers

[q]

List the factors that effect the Stroke Rate[a]ANS, chemicals, age, gender, fitness level and body size

[q]

Starling’s Law – define[a]This rule states that an increase in venous return will cause an increase in cardiac output (CO)

[q]

Increased resting heart rate – causes[a]increased temperature, small body size and low level of fitness

[q]

Decreased resting heart rate – caused by[a]large body size, high level of fitness, decreased temperature

[q]

Baroreceptors & chemreceptors – define[a]These receptors are found in carotid and aortic artery reflexes as well as the atrium reflex

[q]

Blood pressure reflex centers – location[a]medulla

[q]

Vagus N & Glossopharyngeal N – function[a]These nerves carry information to the cardiac centers

[q]

Vagus N and Cardiac N – function[a]These nerves carry motor commands to the heart.

[q]

What is the Aortic reflex response to high blood pressure?[a]This reflex responds to systemic high blood pressure by causing vasodilation and decrease in heart rate.

[q]

What is the Right heart reflex response to high blood pressure?[a]This reflex responds to high blood pressure by causing an increase in heart rate.

[q]

What is the Carotid reflex response to high blood pressure?[a]This reflex responds to high blood pressure in the head by causing vasodilation and a decrease in heart rate.

[q]

What is the Aortic reflex response to low blood pressure?[a]This reflex responds to low blood pressure by causing vasoconstriction and increase in heart rate.

[q]

What is the Right heart reflex response to low blood pressure?[a]This reflex responds to low blood pressure by causing decrease in heart rate.

[q]

What is the Carotid reflex response to low blood pressure?[a]This reflex responds to low blood pressure in the head by causing vasoconstriction and increase in heart rate.

[q]

What is the body’s response to hypoxia or hypercapnia?[a]vasoconstriction and an increase in heart & breathing rate

[q]

Hypercapnia – define[a]too much CO2 in the blood

[q]

Hypoxia – define[a]too little O2 in the blood

[q]

Acidosis – define[a]a low blood pH

[q]

What is a 120/80 reading mean?[a]normal blood pressure for a body at rest

[q]

The Phrenic nerve is used in what reflexes?[a]This nerve is activated in heart reflexes that affect breathing.

[q]

Systolic pressure – define[a]blood pressure when ventricles are contracting

[q]

Diastolic pressure – define[a]blood pressure when ventricles are relaxing

[q]

What is the formula for Blood Pressure?[a] Cardiac Output x Systemic Vascular Resistance

[q]

Viscosity – define[a]thickness of blood

[q]

What contributes to Systemic Vascular Resistance?[a]blood viscosity, total blood vessel length, vessel diameter & smoothness of endothelial lining.

[q]

What is the BP in arteries compared to other vessels?[a]highest

[q]

What is the BP in veins compared to other vessels?[a]lowest

[q]

What is the Velocity in arteries compared to other vessels?[a]highest

[q]

What is the Velocity in capillaries compared to other vessels?[a]lowest

[q]

Angina pectoris – define[a]chest pain due to myocardial ischemia

[q]

When the body is at rest (72 bpm), what part of the cardiac cycle is .4 sec long?[a]diastasis (all four chambers at rest)

[/qdeck]

Heart 3 reversed

[qdeck]

[q]

When the body is at rest(72 bpm), how long are all four chambers in diastole?[a] .4 sec

[q]

Which term describes chest pain due to myocardial ischemia?[a]Angina pectoris

[q]

In which vessels in the CV system is blood velocity lowest?[a]Velocity in capillaries

[q]

In which vessels in the CV system is blood velocity highest?[a]Velocity in arteries

[q]

In which vessels in the CV system is blood pressure lowest?[a]BP in veins

[q]

In which vessels in the CV system is blood pressure highest?[a]BP in arteries

[q]

Which term describes the effect of blood viscosity, total blood vessel length, vessel diameter & smoothness of endothelial lining?[a] Systemic Vascular Resistance

[q]

Which term describes thickness of blood?[a]Viscosity

[q]

Which blood quality is measured by Cardiac Output x Systemic Vascular Resistance?[a]Blood Pressure

[q]

Which term describes blood pressure when ventricles are relaxing?[a]Diastolic pressure

[q]

Which term describes blood pressure when ventricles are contracting?[a]Systolic pressure

[q]

Which nerve is activated in heart reflexes that affect breathing?[a]The Phrenic nerve

[q]

What is considered to be normal blood pressure for a body at rest?[a]120/80

[q]

Which condition describes a low blood pH?[a]Acidosis

[q]

Which condition describes too little O2 in the blood?[a]Hypoxia

[q]

Which condition describes too much CO2 in the blood?[a]Hypercapnia

[q]

Which blood chemistry conditions cause the vasoconstriction and an increase in heart & breathing rate?[a]WThis is the body’s response to hypoxia or hypercapnia.

[q]

Which reflex responds to low blood pressure in the head by causing vasoconstriction and increase in heart rate?[a]Carotid reflex

[q]

Which reflex responds to low blood pressure by causing decrease in heart rate?[a]Right heart reflex

[q]

Which reflex responds to low blood pressure by causing vasoconstriction and increase in heart rate?[a]Aortic

[q]

Which reflex responds to high blood pressure in the head by causing vasodilation and a decrease in heart rate?[a]Carotid reflex

[q]

Which reflex responds to high blood pressure by causing an increase in heart rate?[a]Right heart reflex

[q]

Which reflex responds to systemic high blood pressure by causing vasodilation and decrease in heart rate?[a]Aortic reflex

[q]

Which nerves carry motor commands to the heart?[a]Vagus N and Cardiac N

[q]

Which nerves carry sensory information to the cardiac centers?[a]Vagus N & Glossopharyngeal N

[q]

Which cardiac reflexe centers are contained in the medulla?[a]Blood pressure reflex centers

[q]

Which type of receptors are found in carotid and aortic artery reflexes as well as the atrium reflex?[a]Baroreceptors & chemreceptors

[q]

Which effect do the following have on resting heart rate: large body size, high level of fitness, decreased temperature?[a]Decreased resting heart rate

[q]

Which effect do the following have on resting heart rate: increased temperature, small body size and low level of fitness?[a]Increased resting heart rate

[q]

Which rule states that an increase in venous return will cause an increase in cardiac output (CO)?[a]Starling’s Law

[q]

Which heart function (SR or SV) do the following factors effect: ANS, chemicals, age, gender, fitness level and body size?[a]Stroke Rate

[q]

Which Inotropic agents include: Anoxia (oxygen deprivation) Acidosis, Excess extracellular potassium, Ca++ channel blockers, beta blockers?[a]Negative Inotropic Agents

[q]

Which Inotropic agents include: epinephrine, NE, glucagon, thyroid hormone, dopamine & digitalis?[a]Positive Inotropic Agents

[q]

Which chemical agents weaken the contractile power of the heart?[a]Negative Inotropic Agents

[q]

Which chemical agents strengthen the contractile power of the heart?[a]Positive Inotropic Agents

[q]

Which factors do preload, venous return and afterload contribute to?[a]Stroke Volume

[q]

Which term describes the amount of pressure exerted by arterial blood, which must be overcome by left ventricle to force more blood into the aorta?[a]Afterload

[q]

Which term describes the amount of blood filling the heart before systole?[a]Preload

[/qdeck]

Endocrine System Flashcards

Endocrine 1

[qdeck]

[q]

Endocrine glands – define[a]These glands are ductless and secrete hormones into blood.

[q]

Exocrine glands – define[a]These glands secrete their products into ducts that lead to a body area. (sweat, salivary glands)

[q]

Pancreas – functions[a]This unusual gland is both exocrine and endocrine

[q]

Hormones – define[a]These chemical substances are secreted by cells into extracellular fluids to regulate metabolism of other cells in the body.

[q]

Synergism – define[a] This process describes hormones working together to produce a stronger effect.

[q]

Antagonism – define[a]This process describes when hormones have opposite effects

[q]

Humoral change, neural & other hormonal stimulation – function[a]These stimuli will cause the release of hormones

[q]

Pituitary – define[a] This is the “master gland” of the endocrine system

[q]

Infundibulum – define[a] This structure attaches the pituitary to the hypothalamus

[q]

Adenohypophysis – define[a]anterior lobe of the pituitary

[q]

Neurohypophysis – define[a]posterior lobe of the pituitary

[q]

Pituitary – location[a] sella turcica

[q]

Thyroid – location[a] on the larynx

[q]

Parathyroid glands – location[a] behind the thyroid

[q]

Adrenal Glands – location[a]on the kidneys

[q]

Pineal – location[a]roof of the third ventricle

[q]

Thymus – location[a] mediastinum

[q]

Ovaries – location[a]in the pelvis

[q]

Testes – location[a] scrotum

[q]

Pancreas – location[a]behind the stomach

[q]

Gigantism & Acromegaly – cause[a] oversecretion of Growth Hormone (GH)

[q]

Pituitary dwarfism – cause[a]undersecretion of Growth Hormone (GH)

[q]

Grave’s Disease (Hyperthyroidism)- cause[a] oversecretion of T3 and T4

[q]

Hypothyroidism – cause[a] undersecretion of T3 and T4

[q]

Goiter – cause[a]lack of iodine

[q]

Cushing’s Syndrome – cause[a] hypersecretion of cortisol

[q]

Addison’s Disease – cause[a] hyposecretion of both aldosterone and cortisol

[q]

Diabetes mellitus – cause[a] hyposecretion of or insensitivity to insulin

[q]

Seasonal Affective Disorder – cause[a]Which condition is the result of hypersecretion of melatonin in the winter

[/qdeck]

Endocrine 1 reversed

[qdeck]

[q]

Which type of glands are ductless and secrete hormones into blood?[a]Endocrine glands

[q]

Which type of glands secrete their products into ducts that lead to a body area? (sweat, salivary glands)[a]Exocrine glands

[q]

Which unusual gland is both exocrine and endocrine?[a]Pancreas

[q]

Which type of chemical substances are secreted by cells into extracellular fluids to regulate metabolism of other cells in the body[a]Hormones

[q]

Which process describes hormones working together to produce a stronger effect?[a]Synergism

[q]

Which process describes when hormones have opposite effects?[a]Antagonism

[q]

Which type of stimuli will cause the release of hormones?[a]Humoral change, neural & other hormonal stimulation

[q]

Which gland is the “master gland” of the endocrine system?[a]Pituitary

[q]

Which structure attaches the pituitary to the hypothalamus?[a]Infundibulum

[q]

Which structure composes the anterior lobe of the pituitary?[a]Adenohypophysis

[q]

Which structure composes the posterior lobe of the pituitary?[a]Neurohypophysis

[q]

How many hormones does the anterior lobe of the pituitary make?[a] 7 hormones

[q]

How many hormones does the posterior lobe of the pituitary make?[a]2 hormones –

[q]

Which gland is located in the sella turcica?[a]Pituitary

[q]

Which gland is located on the larynx?[a]Thyroid

[q]

Which glands are located behind the thyroid?[a]Parathyroid gland

[q]

Which glands are located on the kidneys?[a]Adrenal Glands

[q]

Which gland is located on the roof of the third ventricle?[a]Pineal

[q]

Which gland is located in the mediastinum?[a]Thymus

[q]

Which female glands are located in the pelvis?[a]Ovaries

[q]

Which glands are located in the scrotum[a]Testes – location

[q]

Which gland is located behind the stomach?[a]Pancreas – location

[q]

Which conditions are the result of an oversecretion of Growth Hormone? (GH)[a]Gigantism & Acromegaly

[q]

Which condition is the result of undersecretion of Growth Hormone? (GH)[a]Pituitary dwarfism

[q]

Which condition is the result of oversecretion of T3 and T4[a]Hyperthyroidism

[q]

Which condition is the result of undersecretion of T3 and T4?[a]Grave’s Disease (hypothtroidism)

[q]

Which condition is the result of lack of iodine?[a]Goiter

[q]

Which syndrome is the result of hypersecretion of cortisol?[a]Cushing’s Syndrome

[q]

Which disease is the result of hyposecretion of cortisol?[a]Addison’s Disease

[q]

Which disease is the result of hypersecretion of or insensitivity to insulin?[a]Diabetes mellitus

[q]

Which condition is the result of hypersecretion of melatonin in the winter?[a]Seasonal Affective Disorder

[/qdeck]

Endocrine 2 triggers

[qdeck]

[q]

Low levels of GH, exercise, low blood glucose level’s (BGL) – trigger release of[a] Growth Hormone (GH)

[q]

Low levels of thyroid hormone – triggers release of[a]Thyroid Stimulation Hormone (TSH)

[q]

Stress, illness, injury, low levels of glucocorticoids & low Blood Glucose Level’s (BGL) – trigger release of[a] Adrenocorticotropic Hormone(ACTH)

[q]

Low levels of estrogen or testosterone – triggers release of[a]Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) and Lutenizing Hormone (LH)

[q]

UV Radiation – triggers release of[a] Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH)

[q]

Increased blood osmolarity – triggers release of[a] Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

[q]

Stimulation of the cervix or nipple – triggers release of[a] Oxytocin

[q]

Low levels of thyroid hormone, pregnancy, prolonged cold – triggers release of[a]Thyroxine

[q]

Increase in blood calcium levels – triggers release of[a]Calcitonin

[q]

Decrease in blood calcium levels – triggers release of[a]Parathyroid Hormone

[q]

Angiotensin II – triggers release of[a] Aldosteron

[q]

Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) – triggers release of[a] Cortisol

[q]

The Sympathetic NS – triggers release of[a] Epinephrine

[q]

Low Blood Glucose Level’s (BGL) – triggers release of[a] Glucagon

[q]

High Blood Glucose Level’s (BGL) – triggers release of[a] Insulin

[q]

Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) – causes production of[a] Estrogen

[q]

Lutenizing Hormone (LH) – causes production of[a] Progesterone

[q]

Interstitial Cell Stimulating Hormone (ICSH) – triggers release of[a] Testosterone

[q]

Darkness – triggers release of[a]Melatonin

[q]

Low BP & Blood volume – trigger release of[a] Renin

[q]

Hypoxia – triggers release of[a] Erythropoietin

[q]

Food, caffiene, alcohol & stretch of stomach – trigger release of[a] Gastrin

[q]

Acidic food entering small intestine – triggers release of[a]of Secretin

[q]

Fatty food entering small intestine – triggers release of[a]Cholecystokinin

[q]

Increased blood volume – triggers release of[a] Atrial Natriuretic Peptide

[q]

the embryo – triggers release of[a] Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

[q]

Pregancy – triggers release of[a] Relaxin

[/qdeck]

Endocrine 2 triggers reversed

[qdeck]

[q]

Which conditions trigger release of Growth Hormone? (GH)[a]Low levels of GH, exercise, blood glucose level’s (BGL)

[q]

Which condition triggers release of Thyroid Stimulation Hormone? (TSH)[a]Low levels of thyroid hormone

[q]

Which conditions trigger release of Adrenocorticotropic Hormone? (ACTH)[a]Stress, illness, injury, low levels of glucocorticoids & low Blood Glucose Level’s (BGL)

[q]

Which conditions trigger release of Follicle Stimulating Hormone and Lutenizing Hormone? (FSH)[a]Low levels of estrogen or testosterone

[q]

Which condition triggers release of Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone? (MSH)[a]UV Radiation

[q]

Which condition triggers release of Antidiuretic Hormone? (ADH)[a]increased blood osmolarity

[q]

Which conditions trigger release of Oxytocin?[a]Stimulation of the cervix or nipple

[q]

Which conditions trigger release of Thyroxine?[a]Low levels of thyroid hormone, pregnancy, prolonged cold

[q]

Which condition triggers release of Calcitonin?[a]Increase in blood calcium levels

[q]

Which condition triggers release of Parathyroid Hormone?[a]Decrease in blood calcium levels

[q]

Which condition triggers release of Aldosterone?[a]Angiotensin II

[q]

Which hormone triggers release of Cortisol?[a]Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)

[q]

Which system triggers release of Epinephrine?[a]The Sympathetic NS

[q]

Which condition triggers release of Glucagon?[a]Low Blood Glucose Level’s (BGL)

[q]

Which condition triggers release of Insulin?[a]High Blood Glucose Level’s (BGL)

[q]

Which hormone triggers release of Estrogen?[a]Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

[q]

Which hormone triggers release of Progesterone?[a]Lutenizing Hormone (LH)

[q]

Which hormone triggers release of Testosterone?[a]Interstitial Cell Stimulating Hormone (ICSH)

[q]

Which condition triggers release of Melatonin?[a]Darkness

[q]

Which conditions trigger release of Renin?[a]Low BP & Blood volume

[q]

Which condition triggers release of Erythropoietin?[a]Hypoxia

[q]

Which hormone triggers release of Calcitriol?[a]Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)

[q]

Which conditions trigger release of Gastrin?[a]Food, caffiene, alcohol & stretch of stomach

[q]

Which conditions trigger release of Secretin?[a]Acidic food entering small intestine

[q]

Which condition triggers release of Cholecystokinin?[a]Fatty food entering small intestine

[q]

Which condition triggers release of Atrial Natriuretic Peptide?[a]Increased blood volume and pressure

[q]

Which condition & structure triggers release of Human Chorionic Gonadotropin?[a]Pregancy & the embryo

[q]

Which condition triggers release of Relaxin?[a]Pregancy

[/qdeck]

Endocrine 3 actions

[qdeck]

[q]

Growth Hormone (GH) – action[a]This hormone causes lengthening of bone increase in muscle mass & blood glucose levels. (BGL)

[q]

Thyroid Stimulation Hormone (TSH) – action[a]This hormone causes production of Thyroid hormone.

[q]

Adrenocorticotropin Hormone (ACTH)- action[a]This hormone causes secretion of Glucocorticoid hormones.

[q]

Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)- action[a]This hormone causes spermatogenesis in men and maturation of the ova in women.

[q]

Prolactin (PRL) – action[a]This hormone causes production of breast milk.

[q]

Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH) – action[a]This hormone causes increase in skin pigment.

[q]

Lutenizing Hormone (LH) – action[a]This hormone causes testosterone production in men and ovulation in women.

[q]

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)- action[a]This hormone causes increased reabsorption of water in the kidneys and therefore less urine production.

[q]

Oxytocin (OT) – action[a]This hormone causes uterine contraction and milk letdown.

[q]

Thyroxine (T4) – action[a]This hormone increases basal metabolic rate, promotes glycogenolysis & has calorigenic (heat producing) effect.

[q]

Calcitonin (CT) – action[a]This hormone causes calcium to be moved from the blood to the bones.

[q]

Cortisol – action[a]This hormone causes increase in BGL and is an antiinflammatory.

[q]

Aldosterone – action[a]This hormone causes an increase in Na+ reabsorbtion and blood pressure.

[q]

Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) – action[a]This hormone causes movement of CA++ from bones to the blood & increases reabsorption of Ca++ from kidneys.

[q]

Glucagon – action[a]This hormone causes an increase in BGL’s.

[q]

Insulin – action[a]This hormone causes a decrease in BGL’s.

[q]

Estrogen – action[a]This hormone regulates menses & stimulates breast tissue growth.

[q]

Progesterone – action[a]This hormone maintains the endometrium after ovulation & during pregnancy.

[q]

Testosterone – action[a]This hormone causes larger larynx & vocal cords, male pattern hair growth, increased muscle mass & bone density.

[q]

Melatonin – action[a]This hormone regulates the sleep/wake cycle.

[q]

Renin – action[a]This hormone converts Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I.

[q]

Erythropoietin – action[a]This hormone causes bone marrow to produce more Erythrocytes.

[q]

Parathroid Hormone – action[a]This hormone causes an increase in absorption of calcium from dietary sources in small intestine.

[q]

Gastrin – action[a]This hormone causes secretion of hydrochloric acid in the stomach.

[q]

Secretin – action[a]This hormone causes the pancreas to secrete bicarbonate to neutralize acids in food coming from stomach & stimulates liver to make bile to break down fats.

[q]

Cholecystokinin – action[a]This hormone causes the pancreas to secrete digestive enzymes & stimulates gallbladder to empty bile into small intestine.

[q]

Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) – action[a]This hormone inhibits production of renin & aldosterone increasing urine output & decreassing blood pressure.

[q]

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin – action[a]This hormone stops the Corpus Luteum from deteriorating.

[q]

Relaxin – action[a]This hormone softens connective tissues.

[q]

Diabetes Mellitus – list symptoms[a] Polyphagia, polyuria & polydyspia are symptoms of this disease.

[q]

Addison’s Disease – define[a]This disease causes fat deposits on the face and back, hypotension, fatigue and low resistance to stress.

[/qdeck]

Endocrine 3 actions reversed

[qdeck]

[q]

Which hormone causes lengthening of bone, increase in muscle mass & blood glucose levels? (BGL)[a]Growth Hormone (GH)

[q]

Which hormone causes production of Thyroid hormone?[a]Thyroid Stimulation Hormone (TSH)

[q]

Which hormone causes secretion of Glucocorticoid hormones?[a]Adrenocorticotropin Hormone (ACTH)

[q]

Which hormone causes spermatogenesis in men and maturation of the ova in women?[a]Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

[q]

Which hormone causes production of breast milk?[a]Prolactin (PRL)

[q]

Which hormone causes increase in skin pigment?[a]Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH)

[q]

Which hormone causes testosterone production in men and ovulation in women?[a]Lutenizing Hormone (LH)

[q]

Which hormone causes increased reabsorption of water in the kidneys and therefore less urine production?[a]Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

[q]

Which hormone causes uterine contraction and milk letdown?[a]Oxytocin (OT)

[q]

Which hormone increases basal metabolic rate, promotes glycogenolysis & has calorigenic (heat producing) effect?[a]Thyroxine (T4)

[q]

Which hormone causes calcium to be moved from the blood to the bones?[a]Calcitonin (CT)

[q]

Which hormone causes increase in BGL and is an antiinflammatory?[a]Cortisol

[q]

Which hormone causes an increase in Na+ reabsorbtion and blood pressure?[a]Aldosterone

[q]

Which hormone causes movement of CA++ from bones to the blood & increases reabsorption of Ca++ from kidneys?[a]Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)

[q]

Which hormone causes an increase in BGL’s?[a]Glucagon

[q]

Which hormone causes a decrease in BGL’s?[a]Insulin

[q]

Which hormone regulates menses & stimulates breast tissue growth?[a]Estrogen

[q]

Which hormone maintains the endometrium after ovulation & during pregnancy?[a]Progesterone

[q]

Which hormone causes larger larynx & vocal cords, male pattern hair growth, increased muscle mass & bone density?[a]Testosterone

[q]

Which hormone regulates the sleep/wake cycle?[a]Melatonin

[q]

Which hormone converts Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I?[a]Renin

[q]

Which hormone causes bone marrow to produce more Erythrocytes?[a]Erythropoietin

[q]

Which hormone causes an increase in absorption of calcium from dietary sources in small intestine?[a]Parathyroid Hormone (with Calcitriol)

[q]

Which hormone causes secretion of hydrochloric acid in the stomach?[a]Gastrin

[q]

Which hormone causes the pancreas to secrete bicarbonate to neutralize acids in food coming from stomach & stimulates liver to make bile to break down fats?[a]Secretin

[q]

Which hormone causes the pancreas to secrete digestive enzymes & stimulates gallbladder to empty bile into small intestine?[a]Cholecystokinin

[q]

Which hormone inhibits production of renin & aldosterone increasing urine output & decreassing blood pressure?[a]Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)

[q]

Which hormone stops the Corpus Luteum from deteriorating?[a]Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

[q]

Which hormone softens connective tissues?[a]Relaxin

[q]

Polyphagia, polyuria & polydyspia are symptoms of which disease?[a]Diabetes Mellitus

[q]

Which disease causes hypotension, fatigue and low resistance to stress?[a]Addison’s Disease

[/qdeck]

Endocrine 4 targets

[qdeck]

[q]

What regulatory molecules are made of amino acids?[a]Most hormones

[q]

Steroid hormones have which suffixes?[a] ONE, OL, or OGEN

[q]

Epiphyseal plates of long bones & skeletal muscle and liver are targets of which hormone?[a] GH.

[q]

Thyroid Gland has receptors for which hormone?[a] TSH.

[q]

Adrenal cortex has receptors for which hormone?[a] ACTH.

[q]

Gonads have receptors for which hormone?[a] FSH.

[q]

Breast tissue has receptors for which hormone?[a] PRL.

[q]

Interstitial cells of testes & ovarian follicles have receptors for which hormone?[a] LH.

[q]

Melanocytes have receptors for which hormone?[a] MSH.

[q]

Kidneys have receptors for which hormone?[a] ADH.

[q]

Uterine smooth muscle & breast tissue have receptors for which hormone? [a]OT.

[q]

Almost every cell in the body has receptors for which hormone? [a]thyroxin.

[q]

Ostoeclast has receptors for which hormone?[a] calcitonin

[q]

Osteoclasts, kidneys & intestines has receptors for which hormone?[a] Parathyroid Hormone.

[q]

Kidneys have receptors for which hormone?[a] Aldosterone to increase reabsorption of Na from urine.

[q]

Body cells which promote gluconeogenesis and the stress response have receptors for which hormone?[a] Cortisol.

[q]

All Sympathetic erffectors have receptors for which hormone?[a]Epinephrine.

[q]

Liver has receptors from this hormone to release more sugar.[a]glucagon.

[q]

Most body cells has receptors for which hormone?[a] insulin to absorb blood sugar.

[q]

Uterus, breast tissue and most female body cells has receptors for which hormone?[a] Estrogen.

[q]

Uterus, especially endometrium & breast tissue has receptors for which hormone?[a] Progesterone.

[q]

Entire male reproductive system and to some extent entire body has receptors for which hormone?[a] Testosterone.

[q]

This targets the Gonads, NS & Pituitary gland to put you to sleep.[a] Melatonin.

[q]

T cells has receptors for which hormone?[a]thymic hormones

[q]

Cortex of Adrenal Glands has receptors for which hormone?[a] Renin.

[q]

Bone marrow has receptors for which hormone?[a] Erythropoietin.

[q]

Small intestines has receptors for which hormone?[a] Parathyroid Hormone

[q]

Stomach has receptors for which hormone?[a] Gastrin.

[q]

Targets Liver & pancreas for digestion[a] Secretin.

[q]

Targets Pancreas & gallbladder for digestion.[a] Cholecystokinin.

[q]

Targets kidney to make more urine.[a]ANP.

[q]

Corpus luteum has receptors for which hormone?[a] Human Chorionic Gonadotropin.

[q]

Targets connective tissues to loosen in pregnancy.[a] Relaxin.

[/qdeck]

Endocrine 4 targets reversed

[qdeck]

[q]

Which tissues are targeted by Progesterone?[a]Uterus, especially endometrium & breast tissue is targeted by which hormone?

[q]

Which tissues are targeted by Testosterone?[a]Entire male reproductive system and to some extent entire body has receptors for (is targeted by) what hormone?

[q]

Which tissues are targeted by Melatonin?[a]Gonads, NS & Pituitary gland have receptors for and are downregulated by

[q]

Which system do thymic hormones target?[a]T cells

[q]

Where is the hypophyseal portal system located?[a]infundibulum

[q]

Which tissues are targeted by Renin?[a]Cortex of Adrenal Glands

[q]

Which tissues are targeted by Erythropoietin?[a]Bone marrow to make more RBC’s

[q]

Which tissues are targeted by PTH?[a]Small intestines targeted by this to absorb more Calcium.

[q]

Which tissues are targeted by Gastrin?[a]Stomach

[q]

Which tissues are targeted by Human Chorionic Gonadotropin?[a]Corpus luteum

[q]

Which tissues are targeted by Relaxin?[a]Targets connective tissues to loosen in pregnancy.

[q]

Which organs are targeted by Secretin?[a]Targets Liver & pancreas for digestion

[q]

Which organs are targeted by Cholecystokinin?[a]Targets Pancreas & gallbladder for digestion.

[q]

Which tissues are targeted by ANP?[a]Targets kidney to make more urine.

[q]

Most hormones are composed of which substance?[a]amino acids

[q]

Which type of hormones have suffixes that ends in ONE, OL, or OGEN?[a]Steroid hormones

[q]

Which tissues are targeted by GH?[a]Epiphyseal plates of long bones & skeletal muscle and liver

[q]

Which gland is targeted by TSH?[a]Thyroid Gland

[q]

Which gland is targeted by ACTH?[a]Adrenal cortex

[q]

Which glands are targeted by FSH?[a]Gonads

[q]

Which tissues are targeted by PRL?[a]Breast tissue

[q]

Interstitial cells of testes & ovarian follicles have receptors for[a]LH

[q]

Melanocytes & neurons in the CNS have receptors for[a]MSH

[q]

Which tissues are targeted by ADH?[a]Kidneys

[q]

Which tissues are targeted by OT?[a]Uterine smooth muscle & breast tissue

[q]

Which tissues are targeted by thyroxin?[a]Almost every cell in the body

[q]

Which tissues are targeted by calcitonin?[a]Ostoeclast to inhibit

[q]

Which tissues are targeted by Parathyroid Hormone?[a]Osteoclasts, kidneys & intestines

[q]

Which tissues are targeted by Aldosterone to increase reabsorption of Na from urine?[a]Kidneys

[q]

Which tissues are targeted by Cortisol?[a]Body cells which promote gluconeogenesis and inhibit inflammation

[q]

Which organs are targeted by Epinephrine?[a]All Sympathetic effectors

[q]

Which organ is targeted by glucagon?[a]Liver to release more sugar.

[q]

Which tissues are targeted by Estrogen?[a]Uterus, breast tissue and most female body cells

[q]

Which tissues are targeted by insulin to absorb blood sugar?[a]Most body cells

[/qdeck]